2. Which of the following is a common characteristic of most project life cycle descriptions?

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1 INTEGRATION MANAGEMENT 1. The review of key deliverables and project performance at the conclusion of a project phase is called: A. phase exit B. kill point C. stage gate D. a and c E. All above 2. Which of the following is a common characteristic of most project life cycle descriptions? A. Cost and staffing are low at the start, higher towards the end, and drop rapidly as the project nears completion. B. The probability of successfully completing the project is highest at the start of the project. C. Stakeholders have the most influence on the final characteristics of the product at the end of the project. D. a and b 3. A role of the change control board is to: A. issue change requests B. represent top management interests in initiating innovation C. review the impact of change requests on project costs, schedule, and specifications D. schedule changes into PERT networks E. identify new areas of project work 4. Who should contribute to the development of the project plan? A. Project manager B. Entire project team including project manager C. Senior management D. Just the planning department 5. A project plan is: A. A formal, approved document used to guide both project execution and project control. B. A document issued by senior management that provides the project manager with the authority to apply organizational resources to project activities. C. A narrative description of products or services to be supplied. D. A document describing the organizational breakdown structure of the company. 6. Which of the following is NOT an example of a type of schedule report? A. Gantt chart B. Milestone chart C. fishbone diagram 1

2 D. network diagram 7. What is the primary purpose of a milestone chart? A. To show task dependencies. B. To show resource constraints. C. To show significant events in the project such as completion of key deliverables. D. To highlight the critical path. E. All above 8. When should the project manager be assigned? A. As early in the project as feasible. B. Preferably before much project planning has been done. C. At least prior to the start of project plan execution. D. All above. 9. In which type of organization(s) is the project manager's role most likely part-time? A. Functional B. Balanced Matrix C. Weak Matrix D. Strong Matrix E. A and C 10. Project Stakeholders are defined as: A. Individuals and organizations that are actively involved in the project B. Individuals and organizations who use the project's product C. Individuals and organizations whose interest may be positively or negatively affected as a result of project execution or successful project completion D. Individuals and organizations who provide the financial resources E. All above 11. Fast Tracking is defined as: A. A method of project scheduling B. Linking of a project to the ongoing operations of the performing organization C. The overlapping of project phases D. A method of construction E. A method of defining scope of work 12. A product life cycle is a series of phases whose name and number is determined by the needs of the organization or organizations involved in the project. A. True B. False 13. General Management encompasses all except: A. Finance and accounting 2

3 B. Strategic planning C. Sales and marketing D. Developing a new product or service E. Organizational Behavior 14. The organization structure that provides the project manager with the most authority over the project team is: A. Functional B. Weak matrix C. Balance matrix D. Strong matrix E. Projectized 15. Key Management skills include: A. Leading B. Communicating C. Negotiating D. Problem solving E. All above 16. A regulation is a document that lays down provisions with which compliance is mandatory. A. True B. False 17. Problem solving addresses only the cause of problems on the project. A. True B. False 18. In the phase sequence defined by project life cycles, a phase is not begun until all deliverables are approved from the preceding phase. A. True B. False 19. Characteristics of project phases are: A. Milestones B. Objectives C. Activities D. Deliverables E. All above 20. A project is defined in the PMBOK as: A. A process of considerable scope that implements a plan B. A group of ideas managed in a coordinated way to obtain a desired outcome C. A temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product or service 3

4 D. A collection of activities with a beginning and an end E. A series of tasks or functions that must be completed by a certain date 21. A program is defined in the PMBOK as: A. A group of projects managed in a coordinated way to obtain benefits not available from managing them individually B. A number of sub-projects divided into manageable components enabling a project team to ensure the completion of a desired outcome C. A project plan developed by key management personnel to obtain a desired outcome D. The means to subdivide the project into manageable segments E. The framework project management uses to ensure the completion of projects 22. Project Integration Management A. Describes the processes required to ensure that the project includes all the work required to complete the project successfully B. Describes the processes required to ensure timely completion of the project C. Describes the processes required to enure that the project will satisfy the needs for which it was undertaken D. Describes the processes required to ensure that the various elements of the project are properly coordinated E. Describes the processes to acquire goods and services from outside the organization 23. The purpose of the PMBOK is to identify and describe knowledge and practices that must be applied uniformly on all projects A. True B. False 24. An example of a project is: A. Billing customers B. Managing an organization C. Constructing a building or facility D. Providing technical support E. Providing financial services 25. Operations and projects share many characteristics A. True B. False 26. Baseline is the original plan for a project, work package, or activity, plus or minus approved changes. A. True B. False 27. A collection of generally sequential project phases whose name and number are determined by the control needs of the organization or organizations involved in the project, is called: 4

5 A. Project life cycle B. Product life cycle C. Project life event D. All above 28. The project management framework does not provide a basic structure for understanding project management: A. True B. False 29. The facilitating processes include: A. Quality planning, organizational planning B. Staff acquisition, communications planning C. Risk identification, qualitative risk analysis, quantitative risk analysis D. Risk response planning, procurement planning, solicitation planning E. All above 30. Middle (functional) managers have the greatest influence in the direction of the project in which type of organizational structure? A. Project B. Strong Matrix C. Weak Matrix D. Project Coordinator E. Project Expediter 31. The project life-cycle can be described as. A. project concept, project planning, project execution, and project close-out B. project planning, work authorization, and project reporting C. project planning, project control, project definition, WBS development and project termination D. project concept, project execution, and project reporting E. All above 32. Documented work authorizations provide. A. a means for effective internal coordination of the project's activities B. an audit trail of all work authorized from project initiation to completion C. a means for communication of work activity between the project manager and the performing activities D. All above E. A and B only 5

6 33. The use of progress reports. A. are not necessary on small projects B. provides a means whereby various levels of authority can judge project performance C. provides insight into project problem areas and effectiveness of the controls systems D. All above E. B and C 34. Customer influence in the project planning process is. A. meddlesome and will slow down progress B. essential in accurately documenting the goals and the objectives of the project C. a minor consideration because the customer has difficulty in stating what he wants D. best handled by the sales department E. none of the above 35. A project is defined as. A. a coordinated undertaking of interrelated activities directed toward a specific goal that has a finite period of performance B. a large, complex undertaking with many objectives, multiple sources of funding and no discernable end point C. an undertaking of interrelated activities directed toward a specific goal that can be accomplished in less than one year D. a group of activities headed by a project manager who has cradle-to-grave life cycle responsibility for the end product E. All above 36. Creation of project objectives. A. allows for data collection and analysis and progress reporting against which standards of performance can be measured B. is accomplished by selection of measurable variables against which performance can be judged C. is required before funding of the project by the project sponsor D. All above E. A and B only 37. The project charter. A. expresses upper management commitment to the project B. provides the authority by which the project may proceed C. establishes the organizational structure within which the project will operate D. specifies the overall objectives and time frames of the project 6

7 E. All above 38. A program is characterized as. A. a grouping of related tasks lasting one year or less B. a unique undertaking having a definite time period C. a grouping of similar projects having no definite end that supports the product(s) from cradle to grave D. a project with a cost over $1 million E. none of the above 39. The project charter is developed by. A. senior management or manager external to project B. the customer C. the project manager D. both A and C E. none of the above 40. The purpose of configuration management is to. A. insure drawings are updated B. control change throughout the project C. control change during production only D. generate engineering change proposals E. inform the project manager of changes 41. Selection criteria for project selection include. A. cost vs. benefits B. risk C. contribution towards organizational goals D. rate of return E. All above 42. The design phase refers to the. A. concept phase B. development phase C. implementation phase D. acquisition phase 7

8 E. A and / or B 43. Reliability of a product is most directly affected by. A. activities in the concept phase B. how well it is built C. the reputation of the manufacturer D. the project manager E. the company's commitment to quality 44. The development phase is the phase that includes. A. appropriations, allocations, assigning, and acquisition B. feasibility, contracts, allocation, acquisition C. budgets, project plan, appropriations, and allocation D. A and C E. A and B 45. The greatest potential cost savings in a project are found in. A. the project organization B. good contract negotiations C. workers' quality suggestions during implementation D. the concept phase and management plan E. All above 46. The nine categories in the PMI exam are skill areas most closely related to. A. corporate vision B. corporate strategy C. specifications project design D. operations E. product and customer 47. Richard was thrilled to get his first assignment as a project manager. However, he knew the organization style would be a strong matrix organization and this meant the greatest challenge would be. A. implementing Management by Objective B. difficult team building C. organizing his kick-off meeting 8

9 D. some of the functional managers preferred a hierarchical organization E. the project workers would report to him as well as to a functional manager 48. A narrative description of products or services to be supplied under contract is called. A. the project plan B. a statement of work C. an exception report D. a Pareto analysis E. a code of accounts 49. As we deal with increasingly larger projects, we can anticipate that the amount of project documentation and communication will. A. grow linearly B. remain constant C. grow more rapidly than linearly D. decrease E. be unaffected by project size 50. In general, product specifications are best developed by. A. the technical staff B. the project manager C. upper management D. the logistics department E. the contracts department 51. A fundamental role of progress measurement on projects should be: A. to identify poor performers, to punish them B. to determine whether the project i basically on target C. to identify whether problems exist so that corrective action can be undertaken D. to assist in the development of a scope statement E. B and C 52. Allocating human resources is most straightforward in what type of organization? A. functional B. matrix C. projectized 9

10 D. decentralized E. hybridized 53. In general, if a division's activities are focused on the achievement of a single major project, what is the way for it to structure its operation? A. matrix structure B. functional structure C. projectized structure D. ego-less structure E. self-directed team structure 54. The process of establishing clear and achievable objectives measuring their achievement, and adjusting performance in accordance with the results of the measurement is called: A. strategic planning B. alternative objectives inventory C. management by objectives D. contingency planning E. goal tending 55. During what phase are project feasibility studies carried out? A. conceptual B. development C. implementation D. close-out E. postmortem 56. By whom are project plans generally developed? A. the project General Manager B. the Director of Projects C. the project team D. the marketing department E. the engineering department 57. Configuration management is: A. a means of monitoring and controlling emerging project scope against the scope baseline B. the production of a scope statement 10

11 C. the creation of the work breakdown structure D. the set of procedures developed to assure that project design criteria are met E. a mechanism to track budget and schedule variances 58. A review of historical data points (e.g., cost or schedule data) over time is most usefully used to: A. predict trends B. summarize current project status C. compute earned value D. establish blame for project failures E. A and B 59. Which is not an important function of the kick-off meeting? A. to identify project goals B. to introduce the players C. to present the project charter D. to present the detailed plan E. to get team buy-in 60. An objective is clear if: A. top management proposes it B. project workers formulate it C. it employs numbers D. it is developed by the planning team E. different people reading it hold a single view of its meaning 61. A key component of any configuration management system is: A. estimate at completion (EAC) B. a change control board (CCB) C. budgeted cost of work performed (BCWP) D. benefit-cost ratios E. management reserve 62. A general description of a project's objectives, coupled with a statement of management authorization, is called: A. a WBS B. an ERB 11

12 C. a sanity check D. PPBS E. a project charter 63. A periodic document (e.g., biweekly, monthly) detailing time, cost, and resource performance is called: A. an engineering change proposal (ECP) B. a status report C. a work authorization D. the project charter E. an RFP 64. "A precise description of a physical item, procedure, service, or result for the purpose of purchase and / or implementation of an item or service" is called: A. a specification B. a baseline C. a work package D. traceability E. a WBS element 65. A key rule for achieving customer satisfaction is: A. do not spare expenses in product / service development B. conduct a needs analysis C. always do what the customer suggests D. do not contradict the customer E. B and C 66. A request for proposal (RFP) is used to: A. establish a project master plan B. establish project baselines C. create project budgets D. solicit bids from contractors E. maintain control over unauthorized work changes 67. Which of the following is not a common project selection mechanism? A. benefit-cost analysis 12

13 B. scoring sheets C. murder boards D. peer review E. engineering review boards (ERBs) 68. The following actions characterize which phase of the project life-cycle: motivate team, procure goods and services, execute work packages, and resolve problems? A. concept B. development C. implementation D. termination E. B and C 69. Evaluations are carried out throughout the life of a project. Sometimes they entail technical reviews, other times they focus on management audits, and so on. What is not a common problem of evaluations? A. They are inherently threatening B. They are disruptive C. They can be arbitrary D. They are unnecessary E. They are resisted by those being evaluated 70. The final steps in the close-out phase generally lead up to: A. a project selection decision B. a redefinition of project requirements C. customer acceptance D. a final review of the deliverable by the engineering review board E. a kick-off meeting 71. Project control depends heavily on the utilization of an effective status reporting system. Which of the following are the most common categories of project reports? A. Status, trend, variance, and exception B. Profitability, status, and exception C. Status, variance, and stock price D. Balance sheet status, and trend E. Status, exception, and financial audit 13

14 72. Project management specialists frequently distinguish between weak and strong matrix structures. The chief characteristics of a weak matrix is: A. team members are not fully trained to do the job B. the functional manager has relatively more influence in making decisions than the project manager C. management reserve is rapidly being depleted D. re-baselining occurs frequently E. project objectives are poorly defined 73. Project management can be employed in a wide variety of situations. The circumstance in which it is least necessary is: A. when cross functional solutions are needed to produce a deliverable B. when a deliverable must be produced according to a defined deadline C. when work is unique D. when a team is producing a one-of-a-kind deliverable E. when work is routine and repetively performed by the organization 74. Which of the following functions do contemporary project management software packages (e.g., ABT Project Workbench, Microsoft Project) carry out? A. schedule tracking with network diagrams and Gantt charts B. budget tracking C. export data to spreadsheet and database formats D. All above E. A and B only 75. To be effective, post-project evaluations should be used to: A. punish the poor performers B. develop historical data to establish baseline for future projects C. learn lessons D. All above E. B and C 76. Constrained optimization methods of project selection include: A. scoring methods B. benefit-cost ratios C. multi-objective programming algorithms D. subjective analyses E. checklist comparisons of the alternatives 14

15 77. In typical project situations, who among the following has the smallest role to play in selecting projects? A. Subject Matter Experts (e.g., engineers) B. Marketing / Sales Personnel C. Purchasing Experts D. Operations Experts E. Cost Estimators 78. Projects are phased to provide controls over the work and to permit the measurement of progress. The four phases of a project are conceptual,, and close-out / termination. A. execution, pre-close-out B. development, implementation C. implementation, execution D. study, execution E. study, build 79. Project objectives provide the broad direction to the project. The project objectives are first documented in the project's. A. charter B. budget C. appointment letter for the project manager D. execution plan / manual E. master schedule 80. Suppose a corporation executive directs that a feasibility study be conducted. This study would be conducted during the phase of the project. A. conceptual B. planning C. implementation D. close-out E. any of the above 81. The project prescribes the guidelines within which a project is organized, administered, and managed for the timely accomplishment of project objectives. A. charter B. master schedule 15

16 C. budget plan D. management plan E. directive system 82. During the development of the project control system, several areas are considered for the establishment of mechanisms to guide the project, but the control system for the project does not include. A. document control B. procurement / acquisition control C. personnel hiring control D. specification control E. design control 83. Planning and implementing a status reporting system for a project is important to effectively manage the rate of progress. Types of project reports include. A. status, variance, trend, and exception B. cost, trend, schedule, and performance C. cost, schedule, quality, and exception D. analysis, cost, performance, and schedule E. price, time, materials, and budget 84. Selection of an organization to prosecute a project depends upon three key items: degree of advanced technology in the project, percentage of project personnel in the professional category, and the for the project. A. size of the budget B. level of uncertainty C. location of implementation D. type of scheduling system E. undefined objectives 85. The matrix organization is often used for a project because it offers advantages over a pure project organization for certain types of projects. The criterion / criteria for selecting a matrix organization is / are. A. large, complex projects B. technically complex work C. the need for diverse skills on a short-term basis D. limited resources to implement the project E. All above 16

17 86. The matrix organization has two forms: the weak matrix and the strong matrix. the primary difference between these two forms is that. A. the number of permanent people assigned to the project B. the number of functional staff assigned to the project C. the organization always starts as weak and builds to strong D. a weak matrix is used only to plan the project E. relative influences is exercised in the decision-making 87. Suppose there is a great deal of uncertainty associated with a project because the work has not been defined because of the lack of information to develop structured plans. The best organizational structure to use in this situation is the form. A. weak matrix B. strong matrix C. project D. functional E. line and staff 88. The responsibility chart (or matrix) is a useful tool for defining areas of management. A. project and functional B. jurisdictional C. shared D. consulting E. All above 89. The planning evolution is often depicted as a wheel where one action leads to another until the cycle brings a person back to an evaluation of the lower levels of the plans against the top level objectives. The three stages in this planning evolution are. A. conceptual, development, and implementation B. conceptual, action, and operational controlling C. development, implementation, and operational controlling D. planning, action, and changes E. planning, implementing, and measuring 90. The specification and the statement of work are key elements of the contract for a project. The differences between the two documents are primarily that the specification tells and the statement of work tells. 17

18 A. what is to be built; when it is to be built B. characteristics / attributes; how the work is to be accomplished C. what skills are to be used; who is to perform the work D. how many items are to be built; the physical attributes E. when the delivery is to be accomplished; why the project is to be implemented 91. There is a need to illustrate the sequence of activities for the project's feasibility study to permit a macro evaluation of the major tasks. the tool that best meets this requirement is the. A. PERT chart B. linear program chart C. bar chart D. flow chart E. tabular chart 92. A project management plan encompasses several elements that are often considered separate parts of the project, but the plan does not include a. A. master schedule B. budget C. project organization D. open issues E. none of the above 93. In planning for the monitoring and tracking of cost and schedule as an integrated effort, you initiate the earned value system. The output of this system will provide. A. accurate cost-schedule status on a daily basis B. accurate cost-schedule status on a weekly basis C. cost-schedule trends on a monthly basis D. baseline variances on a monthly basis E. baseline variances on a one-time basis 94. Project close-out requires several actions to ensure the logical termination of the ongoing work and compliance with the terms of the contract. Documentation, for example, must be to reflect the condition for the customer. A. counted; quality B. revised; as-built C. reviewed; working D. used; spacing E. used; excellent 18

19 95. The retention of project historical records must be planned during the early phases of the project, which includes the collection, preservation, and recording of information during the implementation. The historical records can be used to for future projects of a similar nature. A. predict trends and highlight problems B. analyze problems and establish contingency costs C. determine personnel shortfalls and planning problems D. determine successes and shortfalls E. identify and assign responsibilities 96. The financial close-out of the project requires that a time be established when no further. A. project accounting will be accomplished B. charges will be made against the project C. invoices will be processed D. bills will be paid E. labor charges will be paid 97. Project management was born out of the need for a more efficient and effective means to accomplish goals for work of a defined time duration. The criteria for using a project management approach to perform work does not include. A. an ad hoc undertaking concerned with a single definable end product B. an undertaking that is routine and frequently performed by the present organization C. an undertaking that is of greater complexity of scope than normal D. an undertaking requiring quick response to change and value of time E. an undertaking with a high degree of interdependence among the tasks 98. Project management has long been recognized in the U.S. government as the most effective method of managing the acquisition of large systems. This effectiveness is enhanced by the project manager providing throughout the life of the project. A. effective direction and change control B. guidance to the team and new project objectives C. a single point of responsibility and decision making D. planning for the budget and schedule E. new project controls and new baselines 99. Various project management structures are used in industries. The degree to which project management techniques are utilized depends mainly on the project's. 19

20 A. budget and schedule B. quality requirements and schedule C. size and type of industry D. nature and size E. manager and team 100. Traditionally, the planning (design, budgeting, scheduling) has been accomplished by a loose conglomeration of independent parties. As the complexity and size of the projects have increased, organizations have formally appointed a to plan, control, and coordinate the resources. A. project manager B. project expediter C. functional manager D. logistic specialist E. planning engineer 101. The owner (buyer) of the project may desire to monitor the progress of a company building the project (the seller). When the expertise is not resident in-house for the owner he may to perform these monitoring functions. A. require the seller to provide a bonded person B. delegate to the seller the responsibility C. hire a project management services representative D. become a project management expert E. hire an audit agency to provide trained auditors 102. The use of project management ranges from mature industries to research and development (R&D) activities exploring new technologies. The difficulties in managing R&D work include all but. A. planning and scheduling of work B. budget expenditures C. motivation of team members D. performance evaluation E. setting priorities and assigning resources 103. Management information systems have grown over the past decade because of the need to provide managers and others with more information to support the decision-making process. A. volume, detailed, and rapid B. accurate, detailed, and formatted C. accurate, timely, and relevant 20

21 D. engineering, design, and as-built E. cost, schedule, and quality 104. The project's ultimate goal is customer satisfaction while the sub-goals for cost, schedule, and quality may be treated equally. This implied or stated equal treatment of the sub-goals. A. is precisely the effect desired to meet the project's ultimate goal B. ensures the project will be completed as planned and will meet the customer's needs C. ensures the project will be successful in meeting both the ultimate and sub-goals D. may conflict with the customer's needs and does not provide guidance for trade-offs E. has no impact on the project because the project manager will decide what is important 105. Many projects do not complete the full life cycle under a single contractor because the design work is accomplished by a third party. the project manager is, therefore, given designs of which he had no control or direction. The disadvantages of having a separate design contractor from the implementation contractor do not include. A. the designer not having the incentive to ensure the designs are the most cost effective B. the designs being incomplete for implementation of the project C. the designs being prepared on a cost-plus basis - i.e., the more the project costs, the more the designer is paid D. the project manager blaming poor performance on the design and the designer blaming the project manager for lack of competency E. the project manager's organization suing the design organization for lack of sufficient detail in the design drawings 106. The project's life cycle consists of four recognized, distinct phases: conceptual, planning, implementation, and close-out. The primary purpose of phasing is to. A. control and transition work B. budget and schedule work C. divide and initiate work D. allocate resources and authorize expenditures E. allocate responsibility and authority 107. Each project should have a project procedures manual (also called a project execution manual) to set the standard practices to be used during all phases of the project. The project procedures manual is. A. an independent document that covers cost, schedules, quality, and regulatory factors B. a brief statement of the overall project policy that covers policy statements of do's and do not's for the project 21

22 C. a procedures document that covers procedures that are new and unique to the project D. an extension of corporate procedures that covers scope of work, project organization, and systems / procedures to be used E. a supplement to corporate procedures that covers roles and responsibilities of functional and project personnel 108. During the planning and implementation phases, there is often a need to conduct trade-offs between several alternatives. Unlike selection of competing alternatives, the trade-offs are usually made between. A. risk, cost, and schedule B. technologies, design, and engineering C. cost, schedule, and quality D. conceptual, planning, and implementation phases E. direct cost, indirect cost, and escalation 109. Many times throughout the project, the project manager will be asked by his management or the customer to give his personal forecast for milestones or targets. The project manager should. A. never give a personal assessment but defer the question until the official answer can be obtained B. give a personal assessment but can be certain to include many caveats to show the uncertainty of the answer C. give an interim answer that includes the qualifier "I believe" until a better answer can be obtained D. tell the asking party that the project policy precludes anyone from giving a personal assessment to avoid misunderstandings E. can answer such questions in general at any time, but should take time to respond to questions requiring precise answers Answer: Question Answer 1 E 2 A 3 C 4 B 5 A 22

23 6 C 7 C 8 D 9 E 10 E 11 C 12 A 13 D 14 E 15 E 16 A 17 B 18 B 19 E 20 C 21 A 22 D 23 B 24 C 25 A 26 A 27 A 28 B 29 E 30 C 31 A 32 D 33 E 34 B 23

24 35 A 36 E 37 E 38 C 39 A 40 B 41 E 42 B 43 A 44 C 45 D 46 C 47 E 48 B 49 C 50 A 51 E 52 A 53 B 54 C 55 A 56 C 57 A 58 E 59 D 60 E 61 B 62 E 63 B 24

25 64 A 65 B 66 D 67 C 68 C 69 E 70 C 71 A 72 B 73 E 74 D 75 E 76 A 77 C 78 B 79 A 80 A 81 D 82 C 83 A 84 B 85 E 86 E 87 C 88 E 89 C 90 B 91 D 92 E 25

26 93 C 94 B 95 A 96 B 97 B 98 C 99 D 100 A 101 C 102 B 103 C 104 D 105 E 106 A 107 D 108 C 109 E 26