Financial Strategy First Test 1. The difference between the market value of an investment and its cost is the: A) Net present value. B) Internal rate of return. C) Payback period. D) Profitability index. E) Discounted payback period. 2. The process of valuing an investment by determining the present value of its future cash flows is called (the): A) Constant dividend growth model. B) Discounted cash flow valuation. C) Average accounting valuation. D) Expected earnings model. E) Capital Asset Pricing Model. 3. The net present value (NPV) rule can be best stated as: A) An investment should be accepted if, and only if, the NPV is exactly equal to zero. B) An investment should be rejected if the NPV is positive and accepted if it is negative. C) An investment should be accepted if the NPV is positive and rejected if its is negative.
D) An investment with greater cash inflows than cash outflows, regardless of when the cash flows occur, will always have a positive therefore should always be accepted. NPV and 4. The length of time required for an investment to generate cash flows sufficient to recover its initial cost is the: A) Net present value. B) Internal rate of return. C) Payback period. D) Profitability index. E) Discounted payback period. the: 5. An investment's average net income divided by its average book value is A) Net present value. B) Internal rate of return. C) Average accounting return. D) Profitability index. E) Payback period. 6. The discount rate that makes the net present value of investment exactly equal to zero is the: A) Payback period. B) Internal rate of return. C) Average accounting return.
D) Profitability index. E) Discounted payback period. 7. The internal rate of return (IRR) rule can be best stated as: A) An investment is acceptable if its IRR is exactly equal to its net present value (NPV). B) An investment is acceptable if its IRR is exactly equal to zero. C) An investment is acceptable if its IRR is less than the required return, else it should be rejected. D) An investment is acceptable if its IRR exceeds the required return, else it should be rejected. called: 8. A situation in which taking one investment prevents the taking of another is A) Net present value profiling. B) Operational ambiguity. C) Mutually exclusive investment decisions. D) Issues of scale. E) Multiple rates of return. 9. The present value of an investment's future cash flows divided by its intial cost is the: A) Net present value. B) Internal rate of return. C) Average accounting return. D) Profitability index. E) Payback period.
10. Which of the following calculations takes the time value of money into account? I. Payback II. Average accounting return III. Profitability index A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and III only E) II and III only 11. The use of which of the following could lead to incorrect decisions when comparing mutually exclusive investments? I. Internal rate of return II. Profitability index III. Average accounting return A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and II only E) I and III only
12. An NPV of zero implies that an investment's. A) cost exceeds the present value of its cash inflows B) cost is equal to the present value of its cash inflows C) IRR is greater than the firm's required rate of return D) present value of cash inflows are positive E) present value of cash inflows exceed the investment's cost 13. Your firm's CFO presents you with two capital budgeting analyses: one that involves buying a new delivery truck to replace the existing truck and one that involves the purchase of a 3-ton metal stamping press to replace the existing press on the plant floor. This is an example of a decision involving. A) mutually exclusive projects B) crossover projects C) payback projects D) independent projects E) working capital projects 14. If financial managers only invest in projects that have a profitability index greater than one, I. firm value will be maximized. II. shareholder wealth will be maximized. III. share price will be maximized. A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and III only E) I, II, and III
15. Variable costs. A) change as a function of the quantity of output produced B) (for a given time period) are constant no matter the quantity of output produced C) change as a function of the next unit of output produced D) comprise the sum total of all production expenses of the firm for some time period E) comprise the sum total of all production expenses of the firm for some time period, expressed relative to the total output produced for that same time period 16. Fixed costs. A) change as a function of the quantity of output produced B) (for a given time period) are constant no matter the quantity of output produced C) change as a function of the next unit of output produced D) comprise the sum total of all production expenses of the firm for some time period E) comprise the sum total of all production expenses of the firm for some time period, expressed relative to the total output produced for that same time period 17. Total costs. A) change as a function of the quantity of output produced B) (for a given time period) are constant no matter the quantity of output produced C) change as a function of the next unit of output produced
D) comprise the sum total of all production expenses of the firm for some time period E) comprise the sum total of all production expenses of the firm for some time period, expressed relative to the total output produced for that same time period called: 18. The change in firm revenue that occurs for the next unit of output sold is A) Marginal revenue. B) Average revenue. C) Total revenue. D) Fixed revenue. E) Variable revenue. called: 19. The difference between the unit sales price and variable costs per unit is A) Operating leverage. B) Contribution margin. C) Gross profit. D) Net profit. E) Marginal revenue. 20. The sales level that results in a project operating cash flow exactly equal to zero is called: A) Operational break-even. B) Leveraged break-even. C) Accounting break-even. D) Cash break-even. E) Financial break-even.
21. The sales level that results in a project net present value exactly equal to zero is called: A) Operational break-even. B) Leveraged break-even. C) Accounting break-even. D) Cash break-even. E) Financial break-even. 22. The degree to which a firm or project relies on fixed production costs is called its: A) Operating leverage. B) Financial break-even. C) Contribution margin. D) Cost sensitivity. 23. The percentage change in firm (or project) operating cash flow relative to the percentage change in quantity sold is called (the): A) Cash flow marginal profit. B) Degree of operating leverage. C) Gross profit. D) Net profit. E) Financial break-even.
24. Which of the following statements regarding operating leverage is correct? A) All else the same, firms with high operating leverage have higher total fixed costs. B) It is generally easier to increase operating leverage than it is to decrease it. C) All else the same, operating leverage will rise as output increases. D) In order to calculate the degree of operating leverage all that is needed are variable costs and operating cash flows. E) All else the same, the degree of operating leverage rises as the price per unit is increased. 25. Your company's scientists have developed an exciting new product that is unlike anything presently available to consumers. The NPV of bringing the product to market is positive yet you are uncertain about the sales projections. The best way for you to test the validity of the sales projections is to use: A) Sensitivity and payback analysis. B) Payback and break-even analysis. C) Break-even and sensitivity analysis. D) Operating leverage analysis. E) IRR analysis. 26. At the accounting break-even point,. A) net present value is positive B) net income is positive C) the project operating cash flow is equal to depreciation expense D) a project's cash flow is equal to zero
E) the price per unit and variable cost per unit are equal 27. Which of the following describe(s) fixed costs? I. Are constant for a given period of time II. Are equal to zero when production is zero III. Change with the quantity of output produced A) I only B) II only C) I and II only D) I and III only E) II and III only 28. Which of the following would most likely be considered a fixed cost for a given time period? A) Sales commissions B) Salary of the Chief Financial Officer C) Advertising expenditures D) Shipping expenses E) Cost of goods sold 29. A portfolio is. A) a group of assets, such as stocks and bonds, held as a collective unit by an investor B) the expected return on a risky asset C) the expected return on a collection of risky assets D) the variance of returns for a risky asset E) the standard deviation of returns for a collection of risky assets
30. The percentage of a portfolio's total value invested in a particular asset is called that asset's: A) Portfolio return. B) Portfolio weight. C) Portfolio risk. D) Rate of return. E) Investment value. 31. The principle of diversification tells us that: A) Concentrating an investment in two or three large stocks will eliminate all of your risk. B) Concentrating an investment in two or three large stocks will reduce your overall risk. C) Spreading an investment across many diverse assets cannot (in an efficient market) eliminate any risk. D) Spreading an investment across many diverse assets will eliminate all of the risk. E) Spreading an investment across many diverse assets will eliminate some of the risk. 32. Which of the following is a true statement? A) To calculate the expected risk premium one needs the expected return on the risky asset and the return on a risk-free asset.
B) The risk premium is the difference between the return on a risky asset and the return on the market portfolio. C) The expected return on an asset is equal to the sum of the possible returns divided by their probabilities. D) Comparison of two different risky assets cannot be simplified by calculating the expected return for each. E) Expected returns depend on the states of the economy but not the associated probabilities. 33. Which of the following is true about calculating expected portfolio returns and variances? A) You need to calculate the weight of each asset relative to the total portfolio to calculate the portfolio return, but not to calculate the portfolio variance. B) Portfolio return can be calculated using the expected return and portfolio weight for each asset. C) The portfolio return is not needed to calculate the portfolio variance. D) The portfolio return and variance are independent of the possible states of nature. E) The portfolio variance is generally a weighted average of the variances of the individual assets in the portfolio. 34. Unsystematic risk is also known as -. A) total risk B) market risk C) asset-specific risk D) non-diversifiable risk E) specific risk
35. Which of the following would be considered an example of systematic risk? I. Lower trade deficit than expected II. Quarterly profit for GM equals expectations III. Lower quarterly sales for IBM than expected A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and II only E) I, II, and III 36. Total risk equals. A) market risk plus firm-specific risk B) firm-specific risk plus diversifiable risk C) systematic risk minus unsystematic risk D) diversifiable risk plus unsystematic risk E) market risk plus non-diversifiable risk 37. Which of the following would be considered an example of unsystematic risk? I. Higher quarterly loss than expected for Procter and Gamble II. Lower consumer spending than expected III. Latest unemployment figures increased, as expected A) I only B) II only C) III only D) II and III only E) I and III only
38. You sell some of your IBM common stock (which tends to move up and down with the economy as a whole) and replace it with the common stock of Fort Knox Gold Mining, Inc. (whose shares tend to rise when economy falls, and vice versa). Your portfolio's beta should. A) increase B) decrease C) remain unchanged D) either increase or decrease E) definitely exceed the beta of the market when all is said and done the 39. An asset's undiversifiable risk is measured by its. A) total return B) expected return C) variance of returns D) unexpected component of returns E) beta coefficient 40. You own 40 shares of stock A, which has a price of $15 per share, and 200 shares of stock B, which has a price of $2 per share. What is the portfolio weight for stock A in your portfolio? A) 18% B) 25% C) 40% D) 60% E) 75%
41. What is the expected return for the following stock? State Probability Return Average.55.20 Recession.20.10 Depression.25.20 A) 0.055 B) 0.080 C) 0.095 D) 0.105 E) 0.110 42. What is the variance of the following returns? State Probability Return Boom.15.60 Good.50.20 Recession.25.10 Depression.10.30 A) 0.0523 B) 0.0673 C) 0.0835 D) 0.1324 E) 0.4156 43. What is the expected portfolio return given the following information: Asset Portfolio weight Return A.25 15%
B.25 20% C.30 10% D.20 35% A) 7.71% B) 9.23% C) 18.75% D) 19.25% E) 21.15% 44. What is the expected return on asset A if it has a beta of 0.3, the expected market return is 14%, and the risk-free rate is 5%? A) 6.0% B) 9.2% C) 7.2% D) 7.7% 45. The proportions of the market value of the firm's assets financed via debt, common stock, and preferred stock are called the firm's. A) financing costs B) portfolio weights C) beta coefficients D) capital structure weights E) costs of capital 46. The weighted average of the firm's costs of equity, preferred stock, and aftertax debt is the: A) Reward to risk ratio for the firm. B) Expected capital gains yield for the stock.
C) Expected capital gains yield for the firm. D) Portfolio beta for the firm. E) Weighted average cost of capital (WACC). 47. Given the following: the risk-free rate is 8% and the market risk premium is 8.5%. Which projects should be accepted if the firm's beta is 1.2? Project Beta Expected return I 0.65 12% II 0.90 17% III 1.40 19% A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and II only E) None of the projects are acceptable 48. Topstone Industries is expected to pay a dividend of $2.10 per share in one year. This dividend, along with the firm's earnings, is expected to grow at a rate of 5% forever. If the current market price for a share of Topstone is $38.62, what is the cost of equity? A) 6.00% B) 10.44% C) 10.71% D) 11.00% E) 11.22%
49. Topstone Industries' preferred stock pays an annual dividend of $4.00 per share. When issued, the shares sold for their par value of $100 per share. What is the cost of preferred stock if the current price is $125 per share? A) 3.2% B) 3.7% C) 4.0% D) 4.7% E) 31.3% 50. Treasury bills currently have a return of 3.5% and the market risk premium is 8%. If a firm has a beta of 1.6, what is its cost of equity? A) 8.8% B) 10.7% C) 12.8% D) 16.3% E) 18.8%
Answer Key 1. A 2. B 3. C 4. C 5. C 6. B 7. D 8. C 9. D 10. C 11. D 12. B 13. D 14. E 15. A 16. B 17. D 18. A 19. B 20. D 21. E 22. A 23. B 24. A 25. C 26. C 27. A 28. B 29. A
30. B 31. E 32. A 33. B 34. C 35. A 36. A 37. A 38. B 39. E 40. D 41. B 42. B 43. C 44. D 45. D 46. E 47. B 48. B 49. A 50. D