CA - FINAL SFM - COMPILER FOREX PROF. RAHUL MALKAN WWW.RAHULMALKAN.COM CONTACT NO - 8369095160
2 SFM - COMPILER Forex Years May Nov RTP Paper RTP Paper 2008 NA NA Yes Yes 2009 Yes YES Yes Yes 2010 Yes YES Yes Yes 2011 Yes N0 Yes Yes 2012 Yes Yes Yes Yes 2013 Yes Yes Yes Yes 2014 Yes Yes Yes Yes 2015 Yes Yes Yes Yes 2016 Yes Yes Yes Yes 2017 Yes Yes Yes Yes 2018 (Old) Yes Yes Yes Yes 2018 (New) Yes Yes Yes Yes 2008 Question 1 : Nov 2008 RTP (a) On 1st July 2008, 3 months interest rate in the US and Germany are 6.5 per cent and 4.5 per cent per annum respectively. The $/DM spot rate is 0.6560. What would be the forward rate for DM for delivery on 30th September 2008? (b) In International Monetary Market an international forward bid on December, 15 for one Euro ( ) is $ 1.2816 at the same time the price of IMM future for delivery on December, 15 is $ 1.2806. The contract size of Euro is 62,500. How could the dealer use arbitrage in profit from this situation and how much profit is earned? (a) USD DM Spot 0.6560 1.000 Interest rate p.a. 6.5% 4.5% Interest for 92 days 1.625% 1.125% According to IRP (Interest Rate Parity) F S = 1 + ia 1 + ib F 0.6560 = 101625 1.01125 0.6560 x 1.01625 therefore F = 1.01125 = 0.6592 (b) Buy 62500 1.2806 = $ 80037.50 Sell 62500 1.2816 = $ 80100.00 Profit $ 62.50 Alternatively if the market comes back together before December 15, the dealer could unwind his position (by simultaneously buying 62,500 forward
SFM - COMPILER 3 and selling a futures contract. Both for delivery on December 15) and earn the same profit of $ 62.50. Question 2 : Nov 2008 RTP XYZ Ltd. is considering a project in Luxemburg, which will involve an initial investment of 1,30,00,000. The project will have 5 years of life. Current spot exchange rate is Rs.58 per. The risk free rate in Germany is 8% and the same in India is 12%. Cash inflow from the project are as follows: Year Cash inflow 1 30,00,000 2 25,00,000 3 35,00,000 4 40,00,000 5 60,00,000 Calculate the NPV of the project using foreign currency approach. Required rate of return on this project is 14%. (1 + 0.12) (1 + Risk Premium) = (1 + 0.14) Or, 1 + Risk Premium = 1.14/1.12 = 1.0179 Therefore, Risk adjusted dollar rate is = 1.0179 x 1.08 = 1.099 1 = 0.099 Calculation of NPV Year Cash flow (Million) PV Factor at 9.9% PV 13.00 0.910 2.73 2 2.50 0.828 2.070 3 3.50 0.753 2.636 4 4.00 0.686 2.744 5 6.00 0.624 3.744 Therefore, Rupee NPV of the project is Question 3: 13.924 Less: Investment 13.000 NPV 0.924 = Rs.(58 x 0.924) Million = Rs.53.592 Million Nov 2008 RTP In March, 2008, the Zed Pro Industries makes the following assessment of dollar rates per British pound to prevail as on 1.9.2008: $/Pound Probability 1.60 0.15 1.70 0.20 1.80 0.25 1.90 0.20 2.00 0.20
4 SFM - COMPILER (i) What is the expected spot rate for 1.9.2008? (ii) If, as of March, 2008, the 6-month forward rate is $ 1.80, should the firm sell forward its pound receivables due in September, 2008? (i) Calculation of expected spot rate for September, 2008: $ for Probability Expected$/ (1) (2) (1) (2) = (3) 1.60 0.15 0.24 1.70 0.20 0.34 1.80 0.25 0.45 1.90 0.20 0.38 2.00 0.20 0.40 1.00 EV =1.81 Therefore, the expected spot value of $ for for September, 2008 would be $ 1.81. (ii) If the six-months forward rate is $ 1.80, the expected profits of the firm can be maximised by retaining its pounds receivable. Question 4: Nov 2008 RTP On July 28, 2008 Unicon (an importer) requested a bank to remit Singapore Dollar (SGD) 2,50,000 under an irrevocable LC. However, due to bank strikes, the bank could effect the remittance only on August 4, 2008. The interbank market rates were as follows: July, 28 August 4 Bombay US$1 = Rs.45.85/45.90 45.91/45.97 London Pound 1 = US$ 1.7840/1.7850 1.7765/1.7775 Pound 1 = SGD 3.1575/3.1590 3.1380/3.1390 The bank wishes to retain an exchange margin of 0.125%. How much does the customer stand to gain or lose due to the delay? On July 28, 2008 the importer customer requested to remit SGD 2,50,000. To consider sell rate for the bank: US $ = Rs.45.90 Pound 1 = US$ 1.7850 Pound 1 = SGD 3.1575 `45.90 x $1.7850 Therefore, SGD 1 = SGD 3.1575 SGD 1 = Rs.25.9482 Add: Exchange margin (0.125%) Rs. 0.0324 Rs.25.9806
SFM - COMPILER 5 On August 4, 2008 the rates are US $ = Rs.45.97 Pound 1 = US$ 1.7775 Pound 1 = SGD 3.1380 `45.97 x $1.7775 Therefore, SGD 1 = SGD 3.1380 SGD 1 = Rs.26.0394 Add: Exchange margin (0.125%) Rs. 0.0325 Rs. 26.0719 Hence, loss to the importer = SGD 2,50,000 (Rs.26.0719 Rs.25.9806) = Rs.22,825 Question 5: Nov 2008 RTP An Indian company is planning to set up a subsidiary in US. The initial project cost is estimated to be US $40 million; Working Capital required is estimated to be $4 million. The finance manager of company estimated the data as follows: Variable Cost of Production (Per Unit Sold) $2.50 Fixed cost per annum Selling Price $ 10 Production capacity Expected life of Plant Method of Depreciation Salvage Value at the end of 5 years $ 3 Million 5 million units 5 years Straight Line Method (SLM) NIL The subsidiary of the Indian company is subject to 40% corporate tax rate in the US and the required rate of return of such types of project is 12%. The current exchange rate is Rs.48/US$ and the rupee is expected to depreciate by 3% per annum for next five years. The subsidiary company shall be allowed to repatriate 70% of the CFAT every year along with the accumulated arrears of blocked funds at the end of 5 years, the withholding taxes are 10%. The blocked fund will be invested in the USA money market by the subsidiary, earning 4% (free of taxes) per year. Determine the feasibility of having a subsidiary company in the USA, assuming no tax liability in India on earnings received by the parent company from the US subsidiary. Working Notes: (1) Cash Outflow (Initial) (Figures in Million) Cost of Plant & Machinery $40 Working Capital Requirement $4 Cash outflow in Rs.(Millions) $44 Cash outflow in Rs.(Millions) 2112
6 SFM - COMPILER (2) Annual Cash Inflow Sales Revenue (5 Million X $10) 50.00 Less: Costs Variable Cost (5 Million units $2.5) $12.5 Fixed Cost $3 Depreciation ($40 Million/ 5year) $8 23.50 Earning before tax 26.50 Less: Taxes (40%) 10.60 Earning after tax 15.90 Add:Back Depreciation 8.00 Cash Flows 23.90 (3) Terminal year Cash Flows Release of Working Capital Salvage Value $4 Million (4) Calculation of exchange Rate over a period of 5 years. Year Expected Rate 0 = 48.00 1 48 x 103 100 = 49.44 2 49.44 x 103 100 = 50.9232 3 50.9232 x 103 100 = 52.4509 4 52.4509 x 103 100 = 54.0244 5 54.0244 x 103 100 = 55.6451 (5) Calculation of Repatriable /Accessible Funds Period Particulars Millions$ 1-4 years Operating Cash Flow After Tax 23.90 Less: Retention 7.17 Repatriable amount 16.73 Less: Withholding Tax 1.673 $4 Million Nil Accessable Funds 15.057 5 year Operating Cash Flow After Tax 23.90 Less: Withholding Tax 2.39 21.51 Add:Repatriation of Blocked Funds* 27.40 Accessible Funds 48.91 *Future Value of Blocked Funds of $7.17 Million shall be computed as follows: Value of Funds blocked from year 1-4 7.17 M$
SFM - COMPILER 7 PV AF (4%, 4) 4.246 Value of Funds at end 30.4438 M$ Withholding Tax 3.0444 M$ 27.3994 M$ Statement Showing Net Present Value of the Project Period Particulars Cash Flow US$ Exchange Rate Rs. PV@12% PV 0 Initial Outflow 44 48 (2112) 1 (2112) 1 Annual Cash Flow 15.057 49.44 744.42 0.893 664.77 2 15.057 50.9232 766.75 0.797 611.10 3 15.057 52.4509 789.75 0.712 562.30 4 15.057 54.0244 813.45 0.636 517.35 5 48.91 55.6451 2721.60 0.567 1543.15 6 Release of WC 4.00 55.6451 222.58 0.567 126.20 1912.87 Decision : Since NPV of the project is positive, the Indian Company should go for its decision of subsidiary in US. Question 6: Nov 2008 Paper 6 Marks An exporter is a UK based company. Invoice amount is $3,50,000. Credit period is three months. Exchange rates in London are : Spot Rate ($/ ) 1.5865 1.5905 3-month Forward Rate ($/ ) 1.6100 1.6140 Rates of interest in Money Market : Deposit Loan $ 7% 9% 5% 8% Compute and show how a money market hedge can be put in place. Compare and contrast the outcome with a forward contract. An Uk firm can hedge its exposure by Money Market Operations UK Firm - $ 3,50,000 receivable after 3 months MMC ( Borrow sell invest ) Step 1 : Borrow $ so that amt payable is $ 3,50,000 after 3 months @9% P.A i.e 2.25% per quarter Amount to be borrowed: 3,50,000 / 1.0225 = $ 3,42,298.29 Step 2 : Convert: Sell $ and buy. The relevant rate is the Ask rate, namely, 1.5905 per, (Note: This is an indirect quote).
8 SFM - COMPILER Amount of s received on conversion is 2,15,214.27 (3,42,298.29 / 1.5905). Step 3 : Invest: 2,15,214.27 will be invested at 5% for 3 months Amount receivable after 3 months 2,17,904.45 Question 7 : Nov 2008 Paper 6 Marks An Indian exporting firm, Rohit and Bros., would be cover itself against a likely depreciation of pound sterling. The following data is given : Receivables of Rohit and Bros : 500,000 Spot rate : Rs.56,00/ Payment date : 3-months 3 months interest rate : India : 12 per cent per annum : UK : 5 per cent per annum What should the exporter do? Indian exporter can hedge his exposure through money Market Operation Indian exporter - 5,00,000 receivable after 3 months MMC (Borrow sell invest) Step 1 : Borrow so that amt payable is 5,00,000 after 3 months Amount to be Borrowed = 5,00,000 1.0125 = 4,93,827.1605 Step 2 : Sell Rs.493827.1605 at spot Rs./ 56 Amt receivable = 493827.1605 x 56 = Rs.2,76,54,320.988 Step 3 : Invest Rs.2,76,54,320.988 for 3 months Question 8 : Amount Receivable = 2,76,54,320.988 *1.03= Rs.2,84,83,950.6176 Nov 2008 Paper 4 Marks The rate of inflation in USA is likely to be 3% per annum and in India it is likely to be 6.5%. The current spot rate of US $ in India is Rs..43.40. Find the expected rate of US $ in India after one year and 3 years from now using purchasing power parity theory. According to Purchasing Power Parity theory F S = 1 + ia 1 + ib Where F = Forward Rate After 1 Year S ia ib F 42.40 = 1 + 0.065 1 + 0.03 After 3 Years = Spot Rate = Rs.inflation Rate and = $ Inflation Rate therefore F = Rs.44.8751 F = 42.40 x 1.065 1.03 x 1.065 1.03 x 1.065 1.03 = Rs.47.9762
SFM - COMPILER 9 Question 9 : Nov 2008 Paper 4 Marks On April 1, 3 months interest rate in the UK and US $ are 7.5% and 3.5% per annum respectively. The UK /US $ spot rate is 0.7570. What would be the forward rate for US $ for delivery on 30th June? According to Interest Rate Parity theory F S = 1 + ia 1 + ib Where F = Forward Rate S ia ib After 3 months = Spot Rate = Interest Rate for 3 months = 7.5% P.A i.e 1.875% for 3 months = $ Interest Rate for 3 months = 3.5% P.A i.e 0.875% for 3 months F 0.7570 = 1 + 0.01875 1 + 0.00875, therefore F = 0.7645 UK /US $ 2009 Question 10 : May 2009 RTP An MNC company in USA has surplus funds to the tune of $ 10 million for six months. The Finance Director of the company is interested in investing in DM for higher returns. There is a Double Tax Avoidance Agreement (DTAA) in force between USA and Germany. The company received the following information from London: /$ Spot 0.4040/41 6 months forward 67/65 Rate of interest for 6 months (p.a.) 5.95% 6.15% Withholding tax applicable for interest income 22% Tax as per DTAA 10% If the company invests in,what is the gain for the company? $ 10 million converted @ 0.4040/$ = $10,000,000 0.4040 = 4,040,000 and invested @ 5.95% for6 months in Luxemburg will fetch : 4,040,000 (1+ 0.0595/2) = 4,160,190 Interest earned = (4,160,190 4,040,000) = 120,190 Withholding Tax @ 10% (in view of DTAA) = 12,019 Net interest eligible for repatriation = 108,171 Amount repatriated after 6 months= 108,171 + 4,040,000 = 4,148,171 Amount received at the forward rate of 0.3976/$ = 4,148,171/0.3976 = 10,433,026 Additional amount fetched =$10,433,026-$10,000,000 = $ 433,026.
10 SFM - COMPILER Question 11 : May 2009 RTP BC Export Co are holding an Export bill in United States Dollar (USD) 1,00,000 due 60 days hence. Rate at which deal was finalized @ Rs.47.50 per USD. The Company is worried about the fluctuating exchange rate. The Firm s Bankers have agreed to make advance against the bill after deduction of interest 9% per annum and also quoted a 60- day forward rate of Rs.48.10. The cost of capital for the exporter is 15% p.a. Advise whether the exporter will agree to the banker s offer. Value of the export in INR Interest @ 1.5% for 60 days Net Amount to be received Cost of the fund @ 15% p.a for 2 months Net Saving ( cost of fund interest ) Difference to be paid after 60 days at forward rate (48.10 47.50) x 1,00,000 Hence the exporter should agree to the offer of his banker. Question 12 : Spot rate 1 US $ = Rs.47.7123 180 days Forward rate for 1 US $ = Rs.48.6690 Interest rate in India = 12% p.a Interest rate in USA = 8% p.a Rs. 47,50,000 71,250 46,78,750 1,42,362 71,112 60,000 May 2009 RTP An arbitrageur takes loan of Rs. 40,00,000 from Indian Bank for 6 months and goes for arbitrage. What is his gain or loss? (Take 1 year = 360 days) Amount he receives in dollar =40,00,000/47.7123 Interest earned by him @ 8% Net Amount received by him after six months After conversion he will receive in Rupees @ Rs.48.6690 Amount to be paid to Indian Banker with interest for six months Gain to the arbitrageur $ 83,835.82 $ 33,53.43 $ 87,189.25 Rs.42,43,414 Rs.42,40,000 Rs.3,414 Question 13 : May 2009 RTP Similar to Question 4 Nov 2008 RTP Question 14: May 2009 Paper 6 Marks Your forex dealer had entered into a cross currency deal and had sold US $ 10,00,000 against EURO at US $ 1 = EUR 1.4400 for spot delivery. However, later during the day, the market became volatile and the dealer in compliance with his management s guidelines had to square up the position when the quotations were: Spot US $ 1 INR 31.4300/4500
SFM - COMPILER 11 1 month margin 25/20 2 months margin 45/35 Spot US $ 1 EURO 1.4400/4450 1 month forward 1.4425/4490 2 months forward 1.4460/4530 What will be the gain or loss in the transaction? 1 The amount of EUR bought by selling USD 10,00,000 * 1.4400 = EUR 14,40,000 2 The amount of EUR sold for buying USD 10,00,000 * 1.4450 = EUR 14,45,000 3 Net Loss in the Transaction = EUR 5,000 To acquire EUR 5,000 from the market @ (a) USD 1 = EUR 1.4400 & (b) USD1 = INR 31.4500 Cross Currency buying rate of EUR/INR is Rs.31.4500 / 1.440 i.e. Rs.21.8403 Loss in the Transaction Rs.21.8403 * 5000 = Rs.1,09,201.50 Question 15: You have following quotes from Bank A and Bank B: Bank A Bank B May 2009 Paper SPOT USD/CHF 1.4650/55 USD/CHF 1.4653/60 3 months 5/10 6 months 10/15 SPOT GBP/USD 1.7645/60 GBP/USD 1.7640/50 3 months 25/20 6 months 35/25 Calculate : (i) How much minimum CHF amount you have to pay for 1 Million GBP spot? (ii) Considering the quotes from Bank A only, for GBP/CHF what are the Implied Swap points for Spot over 3 months? (i) To BUY 1 Million GBP Spot against CHF 1. First to BUY USD against CHF at the cheaper rate i.e. from Bank A. 1 USD = CHF 1.4655 2. Then to BUY GBP against USD at a cheaper rate i.e. from Bank B 1 GBP= USD 1.7650 By applying Cross Rate Buying rate would be 1 GBP = 1.7650 * 1.4655 CHF 1 GBP = CHF 2.5866 Amount payable CHF 2.5866 Million or CHF 25,86,600
12 SFM - COMPILER (ii) Spot rate Bid rate GBP 1 = CHF 1.4650 * 1.7645 = CHF 2.5850 Offer rate GBP 1 = CHF 1.4655 * 1.7660 = CHF 2.5881 GBP / USD 3 months swap points are at discount Outright 3 Months forward rate GBP 1 = USD 1.7620 / 1.7640 USD / CHF 3 months swap points are at premium Outright 3 Months forward rate USD 1 = CHF 1.4655 / 1.4665 Hence Outright 3 Months forward rate GBP 1 = CHF 2.5822 / 2.5869 Spot rate GBP 1 =CHF2.5850 / 2.5881 Therefore 3 month swap points are at discount of 28/12 Question 16: Nov 2009 RTP The current /$ spot rate is 123.00. 6 month European calls with strike 0.0087 and 0.0083 ($/ ) are trading at premia of 0.015/ and 0.02/$ (cents per yen) respectively. A speculator is expecting a fairly strong appreciation of the yen over the next six months. What option strategy should he adopt to profit from this forecast? What is the breakeven rate? How much is the maximum possible profit? Ignore brokerage fees and interest costs/gains. A limited risk speculative strategy would be the bullish call spread i.e. buy the call with strike $0.0083 or 0.83 cents per yen and sell the call with strike $0.0087 or 0.87cent per yen. The initial investment would be (0.02-0.015) = 0.005 cent per yen. The breakeven spot rate would be 0.83+0.005 = 0.8350 cent per yen. Maximum profit potential would be (0.87-0.83) (0.02-0.015) = 0.035 cent per yen. Question 17: Nov 2009 RTP If the interest rate for the next 6 months for the US$ is 1.5% (annual compounding). The interest rate for the is 2% (annual compounding). The spot price of the is US $ 1.665. The forward price is expected to be US$ 1.664. Please determine correct forward price and recommend an arbitrage strategy. According to Interest Rate Parity theory F S = 1 + ia 1 + ib Where F = Forward Rate S ia ib = Spot Rate = $ Interest Rate for 6 months = 1.5% for 6 months = Interest Rate for 6 months
SFM - COMPILER 13 After 6 Months = 2 % for 6 months F 1,000 = 1.015 1.02, Therefore F = 1.6568 Because the forward price is higher than the model price, we will sell the forward contract. If transaction costs could be covered, we would buy the in the spot market at $1.665 and sell it in the forward market at $1.664. We would earn interest at the foreign interest rate of 2 percent. By selling it forward, we could then convert back to dollars at the rate of $1.664. In other words, $1.665 would be used to buy 1 unit of the, which would grow to 1.02 units (the 2 percent rate). Then 1.02 would be converted back to 1.02($1.664) = $1.69728. This would be a return of $1.69728/$1.665 1 = 0.019387 or 1.94 percent, which is better than the US rate. Question 18: Nov 2009 Paper 12 Marks M/s Omega Electronics Ltd. Exports air conditioners to germany by importing all the components from Singapore. The company is exporting 2,400 units at a price of Euro 500 per units. The cost of imported components is S$ 800 per unit. The fixed cost and other variables cost per unit are Rs. 1,000 and Rs. 1,500 respectively. The cash flow in foreign currencies are due in six months. The current exchange rates are as follows :- Rs./Euro 51.50/55 Rs./$ 27.20/25 After 6 months the exchange rates turn out as follows : Rs./Euro 52.00/05 Rs./$ 27.70/75 1) You are required to calculate loss/gain due to transaction exposure. 2) Based on the following additional information calculate the loss/gain due to transaction and operating exposure if the contracted price of air conditioners is Rs. 25,000 : a) The current exchange rate changes to : Rs./Euro 51.75/80 Rs./$ 27.10/15 b) Price elasticity of demand is estimated to be 1.5 c) Payments and Receipts are to be settled at the end of six months. (a) Profit at current exchange rates 2400[ 500 S$51.50 (S$800 Rs. 27.25 +Rs. 1,000+ Rs. 1,500)] 2400[Rs..25,750- Rs. 24,300] = Rs. 34,80,000
14 SFM - COMPILER Profit after change in exchange rates 2400[ 500 Rs. 52 (S$800 Rs. 27.75+ Rs. 1000+ Rs. 1500)] 2400[Rs. 26,000- Rs. 24,700] = Rs. 31,20,000 LOSS DUE TO TRANSACTION EXPOSURE Rs. 34,80,000 Rs. 31,20,000= Rs. 3,60,000 Profit based on new exchange rates 2400[Rs. 25,000-(800 Rs. 27.15+ Rs. 1,000+ Rs. 1,500)] 2400[Rs. 25,000 - Rs. 24,220]= Rs. 18,72,000 Profit after change in exchange rates at the end of six months 2400[Rs. 25,000-(800 Rs. 27.75+ Rs. 1,000+ Rs. 1,500)] 2400[Rs. 25,000- Rs. 24,700]= Rs. 7,20,000 Decline in profit due to transaction exposure Rs. 18,72,000- Rs. 7,20,000 = Rs. 11,52,000 Current price of each unit in S$ = 25,000 51.50 Price after change in Exch. Rate= 25,000 51.75 Change in Price due to change in Exch. Rate S$ 485.44-S$ 483.09 = S$ 2.35 or (-) 0.48% Price elasticity of demand = 1.5 = S$ 485.44 = S$ 483.09 Increase in demand due to fall in price 0.48 1.5 =0.72% Size of increased order = 2400 1.0072 = 2417 units Profit = 2417 [Rs. 25,000 (800 Rs. 27.75 + Rs. 1,000 + Rs. 1,500)] =2417[Rs. 25,000- Rs. 24,700] = Rs. 7,25,100 Therefore, decrease in profit due to operating exposure Rs. 18,72,000 Rs. 7,25,100 = Rs.11,46,900 2010 Question 19: May 2010 RTP On 30th June 2009 when a forward contract matured for execution you are asked by an importer customer to extend the validity of the forward sale contract for US$ 10,000 for a further period of three months. Contracted Rate US$1 = Rs.41.87 The US Dollar quoted on 30.6.2009
SFM - COMPILER 15 Spot Rs. 40.4800/Rs. 40.4900 Premium July 0.1100/0.1300 Premium August 0.2300/0.2500 Premium September 0.3500/0.3750 Calculate the cost for your customer in respect of the extension of the forward contract. Rupee values to be rounded off to the nearest Rupee. Margin 0.080% for Buying Rate Margin 0.25% for Selling Rate This extension of forward Contract involves following steps 1. Cancel the contract at TT buying rate. 2. Rebook the contract for three months at the current rate of exchange. Accordingly Step 1: Cancel the contract at TT buying rate on 30.6.2009 Rs. Spot US$ 1 40.4800 Less:Margin 0.080% 0.0324 40.4476 Hence TT buying rate Rs. 40.45 (Rounded off) US$ 10,000 @ Rs. 40.45 Rs. 4,04,500/- US$ 10,000@ Rs. 41.87 Rs. 4,18,700/- Difference in favour of the bank Rs. 14,200/-. Step 2: New contract to be booked at the appropriate forward rate. Three months forward rate is as under: US$ 1 Rs. 40.4900 Spot Selling Add : September Premium Rs. 0.3750 Rs. 40.8650 Add: Margin (0.25%) Rs. 0.1022 Rs. 40.9672 Forward rate to be quoted to the customer is US$ 1 = Rs.40.97 Thus cost to customer Rs.14,200/-. Question 20: May 2010 RTP Wenden Co is a Dutch-based company which has the following expected transactions. One month: Expected receipt of 2,40,000
16 SFM - COMPILER One month: Expected payment of 1,40,000 Three months: Expected receipts of 3,00,000 The finance manager has collected the following information: Spot rate ( per ): 1.7820 ± 0.0002 One month forward rate ( per ): 1.7829 ± 0.0003 Three months forward rate ( per ): 1.7846 ± 0.0004 Money market rates for Wenden Co: Borrowing Deposit One year Euro interest rate: 4.9% 4.6 One year Sterling interest rate: 5.4% 5.1 Assume that it is now 1 April. Required: (a) Calculate the expected Euro receipts in one month and in three months using the forward market. (b) Calculate the expected Euro receipts in three months using a moneymarket hedge and recommend whether a forward market hedge or a money market hedge should be used. (a) Forward market evaluation Net receipt in 1 month = 2,40,000 1,40,000 = 1,00,000 Wenden Co needs to sell Sterlings at an exchange rate of (1.7829 + 0.0003) = 1.7832per Euro value of net receipt = 1,00,000/ 1.7832 = 56,079 Receipt in 3 months = 3,00,000 Wenden Co needs to sell Sterlings at an exchange rate of 1.7846 + 0.0004 = 1.7850per Euro value of receipt in 3 months = 3,00,000/ 1.7850 = 1,68,067 (b) Evaluation of money-market hedge (Borrow Sell Invest) Expected receipt after 3 months = 300,000 Step 1 : Borrow Sterling interest rate over three months = 5.4/ 4 = 1.35% Sterlings to borrow now to have 300,000 liability after 3 months = 300,000/ 1.0135 = 296,004 Step 2 : Sell Spot rate for selling Sterling = 1.7820 + 0.0002 = 1.7822 per Euro deposit from borrowed Sterling at spot = 296,004/ 1.7822 = 166,089 Step 3 : Invest Euro interest rate over three months = 4.6/ 4 = 1.15% Value in 3 months of Euro deposit = 166,089 x 1.0115 = 167,999
SFM - COMPILER 17 The forward market is marginally preferable to the money market hedge for the Sterling receipt expected after 3 months. Question 21: May 2010 RTP CQS plc is a UK company that sells goods solely within UK. CQS plc has recently tried a foreign supplier in Netherland for the first time and need to pay 250,000 to the supplier in six months time. You as financial manager are concerned that the cost of these supplies may rise in Pound Sterling terms and has decided to hedge the currency risk of this account payable. The following information has been provided by the company s bank: Spot rate ( per ) : 1 998 ± 0 002 Six months forward rate ( per ) : 1 979 ± 0 004 Money market rates available to CQS plc: Borrowing Deposit One year Pound Sterling interest rates : 6 1% 5 4% One year Euro interest rates : 4 0% 3 5% Assuming CQS plc has no surplus cash at the present time you are required to evaluate whether a money market hedge, a forward market hedge or a lead payment should be used to hedge the foreign account payable. Money market hedge (Invest Buy Borrow) CQS plc should place sufficient Euros on deposit now so that, with accumulated interest, the six-month liability of 250,000 can be met. Since the company has no surplus cash at the present time, the cost of these Euros must be met by a short-term Pound Sterling loan. Step 1 : Invest Six-month Euro deposit rate = 3 5/2 = 1 75% Euros deposited now = 250,000/1 0175 = 2,45,700 Step 2 : Sell Current spot selling rate = 1 998 0 002 = 1 996 per Cost of these Euros at spot = 245,700/1 996 = 1,23,096 Step 3 : Borrow Six-month Pound Sterling borrowing rate = 6 1/2 = 3 05% Pound Sterling value of loan in six months time = 123,096 x 1 0305 = 1,26,850 Forward market hedge (Buy FC Forward) Six months forward selling rate = 1 979 0 004 = 1 975 per Pound Sterling cost using forward market hedge = 2,50,000/1 975 = 1,26,582 Lead payment Since the Euro is appreciating against the Pound Sterling, a lead payment may be worthwhile. Pound Sterling cost now = 2,50,000/1 996 = 1,25,251 This cost must be met by a short-term loan at a six-month interest rate of 3 05% Pound Sterling value of loan in six months time
18 SFM - COMPILER = 1,25,251 x 1 0305 = 1,29,071 Evaluation of hedges The relative costs of the three hedges can be compared since they have been referenced to the same point in time, i.e. six months in the future. The most expensive hedge is the lead payment, while the cheapest is the forward market hedge. Using the forward market to hedge the account payable currency risk can therefore be recommended Question 22: May 2010 RTP OJ Ltd. Is a supplier of leather goods to retailers in the UK and other Western European countries. The company is considering entering into a joint venture with a manufacturer in South America. The two companies will each own 50 per cent of the limited liability company JV(SA) and will share profits equally. 450,000 of the initial capital is being provided by OJ Ltd. and the equivalent in South American dollars (SA$) is being provided by the foreign partner. The managers of the joint venture expect the following net operating cash flows, which are in nominal terms: SA$ 000 Forward Rates of exchange to the Sterling Year 1 4,250 10 Year 2 6,500 15 Year 3 8,350 21 For tax reasons JV(SV) the company to be formed specifically for the joint venture, will be registered in South America. Ignore taxation in your calculations. Assuming you are financial adviser retained by OJ Limited to advise on the proposed joint venture. (i) Calculate the NPV of the project under the two assumptions explained below. Use a discount rate of 18 per cent for both assumptions. Assumption 1: The South American country has exchange controls which prohibit the payment of dividends above 50 per cent of the annual cash flows for the first three years of the project. The accumulated balance can be repatriated at the end of the third year. Assumption 2: The government of the South American country is considering removing exchange controls and restriction on repatriation of profits. If this happens all cash flows will be distributed as dividends to the partner companies at the end of each year. (ii) Comment briefly on whether or not the joint venture should proceed based solely on these calculations. Since only one discounting rate in given and interest rates are absent we have to follow Home currency approach.. Assumption 1: Exchange Control exists. Yr CF SA $ OJ s Sh Withdrawa l 1 2 3 42,50,000 65,00,000 83,50,000 21,50,000 32,50,000 41,75,000 10,62,500 16,25,000 68,62,500 Exc. Rate 10 15 21 CF (Rs.) 1,06,250 1,08,333 3,26,785 DF (18%) 0.847 0.718 0.609 DCF 89,994 77,783 1,99,012 PV Inflows 3,66,789
SFM - COMPILER 19 Decision : Project is not desirable if the exchange control exists Assumption 2 : No exchange control Yr CF SA $ OJ s Sh Exc. Rate 1 2 3 42,50,000 65,00,000 83,50,000 21,50,000 32,50,000 41,75,000 10 15 21 CF (Rs.) 2,15,000 2,16,667 1,98,810 - PV Outflows 4,50,00 0 NPV (83,211) DF (18%) 0.847 0.718 0.609 DCF 1,82,105 1,55,567 1,21,075 PV Inflows 4,58,747 - PV Outflows 4,50,000 NPV 8,747 Decision : The project can be picked up is the exchange controls are removed Question 23: May 2010 Paper 4 Marks The rate of inflation in India is 8% per annum and in the U.S.A. it is 4%. The current spot rate for USD in India is Rs. 46. What will be the expected rate after 1 year and after 4 years applying the Purchasing Power Parity Theory. According to Purchasing Power Parity theory F S = 1 + ia 1 + ib Where F = Forward Rate After 1 Year S ia ib F 46 = 1 + 0.08 1 + 0.04 After 4 Years = Spot Rate = Rs. inflation Rate and = $ Inflation Rate therefore F = Rs. 47.769 F = 46 x 1.08 1.04 x1.08 1.04 x1.08 1.04 x 1.08 1.04 = Rs.53.4958
20 SFM - COMPILER Question 24: Nov 2010 RTP Trueview plc, a group of companies controlled from the United Kingdom includes subsidiaries in India, Malaysia and the United States. As per the CFO s forecast that, at the end of the June 2010 the position of inter-company indebtedness will be as follows: The Indian subsidiary will be owed Rs. 1,44,38,100 by the Malaysian subsidiary and will to owe the US subsidiary US$ 1,06,007. The Malaysian subsidiary will be owed MYR 14,43,800 by the US subsidiary and will owe it US$ 80,000. Suppose you are head of central treasury department of the group and you are required to net off inter-company balances as far as possible and to issue instructions for settlement of the net balances. For this purpose, the relevant exchange rates may be assumed in terms of 1 are US$ 1.415; MYR 10.215; Rs.68.10. What are the net payments to be made in respect of the above balances? India Malaysia US India - Rs. 1,44,38,100 (US$ 1,06,007) Malaysia (Rs. 1,44,38,100) - MYR 1,443,800 (US$ 80,000) US US$ 1,06,007 (MYR 14,43,800) US$ 80,000 Table showing conversion of above position into pound sterling India Malaysia US Total India - 2,12,013 (74,917) 1,37,096 Malaysia (2,12,013) - 1,41,341 (56,537) US 74,917 (1,41,341) 56,537 (1,37,096) 1,27,209 9,887 - (1,27,209) - (9,887) Decision: Central treasury department will instruct the Malaysia subsidiary to pay the Indian subsidiary 1,27,209 and the US subsidiary to pay the Indian subsidiary 9,887.
SFM - COMPILER 21 Question 25: Nov 2010 RTP Somu Electronics imported goods from Japan on July 1st 2009, of JP 1 million, to be paid on 31st, December 2009. The treasury manager collected the following exchange rates on July 01, 2009 from the bank. Delhi Rs./US$ Spot 45.86 /88 6 months forward 46.00/03 Tokyo JP / US$ Spot 108/108.50 6 months forward 110/110.60 In spite of fact that the forward quotation for JP was available through cross currency rates, Mr. X, the treasury manager purchased spot US$ and converted US$ into JP in Tokyo using 6 months forward rate. However, on 31st December, 2009 Rs./US$ spot rate turned out to be 46.24 /26. You are required to calculate the loss or gain in the strategy adopted by Mr. X by comparing the notional cash flow involved in the forward cover for Yen with the actual cash flow of the transaction. Here we have to compare the notional cash outflow for the forward rate of JP and the actual cash outflow involved in rupees against forward purchase of JP for dollars in Tokyo and spot purchase of dollars in Delhi for Rs. (A) Cash flow of forward purchasing the JP Rs./JP 6 month forward rate Bid rate = Bid rate of US$ / Ask Rate of JP = Rs. 46/ JP 110.60 =Rs. 0.415913 Ask rate = Ask rate of US$ / Bid Rate of JP = Rs. 46.03/ JP 110=Rs.0. 418454 Hence, Rs./JP 6 month forward rate = 0.415913/0.418454 Accordingly, if the company had purchased JP forward against rupees it would have paid = Rs.418454.50 (B) Cash flow of forward purchasing US$ in spot market and converting into JP Amount of US dollars to be paid on due date by purchase of JP 1 million in forward market = JP 1,000,000/ JP 110 = US$ 9090.91 Cash outflows in rupees against purchase of dollars in on Dec. 31, 2009 = US$ 9090.91 Rs. 46.26 = Rs. 420,545.50 (C) Loss or gain due to strategy adopted by Mr. X. (A) (B) = Rs. 4,18,454.50 4,20,545.50 = Rs. 2091.00 Thus, the company paid more Rs.2,091.00 in the strategy adopted by Mr. X.
22 SFM - COMPILER Question 26: Nov 2010 RTP An automobile company in Gujarat exports its goods to Singapore at a price of SG$ 500 per unit. The company also imports components from Italy and the cost of components for each unit is 200. The company s CEO executed an agreement for the supply of 20000 units on January 01, 2010 and on the same date paid for the imported components. The company s variable cost of producing per unit is Rs. 1,250 and the allocable fixed costs of the company are Rs. 1,00,00,000. The exchange rates as on 1 January 2010 were as follows- Spot Rs./SG$ 33.00/33.04 Rs./ 56.49/56.56 Mr. A, the treasury manager of company is observing the movements of exchange rates on a day to day basis and has expected that the rupee would appreciate against SG$ and would depreciate against. As per his estimates the following are expected rates for 30th June 2010. Spot Rs./SG$ 32.15/32.21 Rs./ 57.27/57.32 You are required to find out: (a) The change in profitability due to transaction exposure for the contract entered into. (b) How many units should the company increases its sales in order to maintain the current profit level for the proposed contract in the end of June 2010. (a) Let us first calculate the Company s existing profits Rs. Rs. Sales 20000 x SG$500 x Rs.33 330,000,000 Variable Cost Imported Raw Material-20000 x 200 x Rs.56.56226,240,000 Manufacturing Cost- 20000 x Rs.1,250 25,000,000 Fixed Cost 10,000,000 261,240,000 Profit 68,760,000 After the Rupee appreciation against SG$ and depreciation against, the company s profitability will be Rs. Rs. Sales 20000 x SG$500 x Rs.32.15 321,500,000 Variable Cost
SFM - COMPILER 23 Imported Raw Material-20000 x 200 x Rs.57.32229,280,000 Manufacturing Cost- 20000 x Rs. 1,250 25,000,000 Fixed Cost 10,000,000 264,280,000 Profit 57,220,000 Thus profit will decrease by Rs. 11,540,000 (Rs. 68,760,000 Rs. 57,220,000) (b) Let the number of units that need to be sold for keeping the profits at pre appreciation level be X. Then Rs.68,760,000 = [500 Rs. 32.15 X] [(1250 X) + (200 57.32X) + 10,000,000] 68,760,000 = [16075X (1250X + 11464X + 10,000,000)] 68,760,000 + 10,000,000= 16075X 12714X 78,760,000 = 3361X X = 23433.50 or, 23434 units. Thus, the company should increase its existing supply from 20000 to 23434 to maintain the current profit level of Rs. 68,760,000. Question 27: Given the following information : Exchange rate- Interest rates Canadian Dollar 0.665 per DM (Spot) Nov 2010 Paper 8 Marks Canadian Dollar 0.670 per DM (3 months) -DM 7% p.a. Canadian Dollar 9% p.a. What operations would be carried out to earn the possible arbitrage gains? spot $ / DM 0.665 3mf $ / DM 0.670 i$ 9%pa idm Step 1 : Step 2 : Step 3 : Step 4 : 7%pa Borrow 10,000 CD for 3 months Amt : payable = 10,000 x 1.0225 CD = 10225 CD Convert CD 10,000 in DM spot Amount Received = 10,000 0.665 Invest 15,037.59 DM for 3 months = 15,037.59 DM Amount Receivable = 15,037.59 x 1.0175 = 15,300.7478 Sell 15,300.7478 DM 3 mf Amount Receivable = 15,300.7478 x 0.670 = 10,251.50 Profit = 10,251.50 10,225 = 26.5 $
24 SFM - COMPILER 2011 Question 28: May 2011 RTP Arnie operating a garment store in US has imported garments from Indian exporter of invoice amount of Rs.1,38,00,000 (equivalent to US$ 3,00,000). The amount is payable in 3 months. It is expected that the exchange rate will decline by 5% over 3 months period. Arnie is interested to take appropriate action in foreign exchange market. The three month forward rate is quoted at Rs.44.50. You are required to calculate expected loss which Arnie would suffer due to this decline if risk is not hedged. If there is loss, then how he can hedge this risk. Arnie us imports fc Rs.1,38,00,000 payable after 3 months Spot Rs. / $ 1,38,00,000 3,00,000 = 46 Expected 3 months spot Rs. / $ 43.7 3 mf rate Rs. / $ 44.5 No Hedging 3m spot Rs. / $ 43.7 1,38,00,000 43.7 : Loss = 1,57,789.4737 Hedging 3mf Buy 3mf Rs. / $ 44.5 = 3,15,789.4737 $ Amt payable = 1,38,00,000 44.5 : Saving in loss 315789.4737 Question 29: 310112.3596 = 310112.3596 $ 5677.1141 $ May 2011 RTP AMK Ltd. an Indian based company has subsidiaries in U.S. and U.K. Forecasts of surplus funds for the next 30 days from two subsidiaries are as below: U.S. U.K. $12.5 million 6 million Following exchange rate informations are obtained: $/Rs. /Rs. Spot 0.0215 0.0149
SFM - COMPILER 25 30 days forward 0.0217 0.0150 Annual borrowing/deposit rates (Simple) are available. Rs. 6.4%/6.2% $ 1.6%/1.5% 3.9%/3.7% The Indian operation is forecasting a cash deficit of Rs. 500 million. It is assumed that interest rates are based on a year of 360 days. (i) Calculate the cash balance at the end of 30 days period in Rs. for each company under each of the following scenarios ignoring transaction costs and taxes: (a) Each company invests/finances its own cash balances/deficits in local currency independently. (b) Cash balances are pooled immediately in India and the net balances are invested/borrowed for the 30 days period. (ii) Which method do you think is preferable from the parent company s point of view? Cash Balances: Acting independently Rs. 000 Capital Interest Rs. in 30 days India 5,00,000 2,666.67 5,02,667 U.S. 12,500 15.63 5,76,757 U.K. 6,000 18.50 4,01,233 Immediate Cash Pooling Rs. 000 India -5,00,000 US UK 12,500 0.0215 6,000 0.0149 5,81,395 4,02,658 Net 4,84,080 4,75,323 If the company decides to invest pooled amount of Rs. 4,84,080,000/- @ 6.2% p.a. for 30 days an interest of Rs. 2,501,080/- will accrue. Immediate cash pooling is preferable as it maximizes interest earnings
26 SFM - COMPILER Question 30: Nov 2011 Paper 5 Marks On January 28, 2005 an importer customer requested a bank to remit Singapore Dollar (SGD) 25,00,000 under an irrevocable LC. However due to bank strikes, the bank could effect the remittance only on February 4, 2005. The interbank market rates were as follow : January 28 February 4 Bombay US$1 Rs. 45.85/45.90 45.91/45.97 London Pound I US$17840/17850 1.7765/1.7775 Singapore Pound I SGD3.1575/3.1590 3.1380/3.1390 The bank wishes to retain an exchange margin of 0.125%. How much does the customer stand to gain or lose due to the delay? (Calculate rate in multiples of.0001) On July 28, 2008 the importer customer requested to remit SGD 25,00,000. To consider sell rate for the bank: US $ = Rs.45.90 Pound 1 = US$ 1.7850 Pound 1 = SGD 3.1575 Therefore, SGD 1 = ` 45.90 x $ 1.7850 SGD 3.1575 SGD 1 = Rs. 25.9482 Add: Exchange margin (0.125%) Rs. 0.0324 On August 4, 2008 the rates are Rs. 25.9806 US $ = Rs. 45.97 Pound 1 = US$ 1.7775 Pound 1 = SGD 3.1380 Therefore, SGD 1 = ` 45.97 x $ 1.7775 SGD 3.1380 SGD 1 = Rs. 26.0394 Add: Exchange margin (0.125%) Rs. 0.0325 Hence, loss to the importer = SGD 25,00,000 (Rs.26.0719 Rs.25.9806) = Rs.2,28,250 Rs. 26.0719
SFM - COMPILER 27 Question 31: Nov 2011 Paper 6 Marks An Indian importer has to settle an import bill for $ 1,30,000. The exporter has given the Indian exporter two options: (i) Pay immediately without any interest charges. (ii) Pay after three months with interest at 5 percent per annum. The importer's bank charges 15 percent per annum on overdrafts. The exchange rates in the market are as follows: Spot rate (Rs./$) : 48.35 /48.36 3-Months forward rate (Rs./$) : 48.81 /48.83 The importer seeks your advice. Give your advice. If importer pays now, he will have to buy US$ in Spot Market by availing overdraft facility. Accordingly, the outflow under this option will be Amount required to purchase $130000[$130000 X Rs.48.36]62,86,800 Add: Overdraft Interest for 3 months @15% p.a. 2,35,755 65,22,555 If importer makes payment after 3 months then, he will have to pay interest for 3 months @ 5% p.a. for 3 month along with the sum of import bill. Accordingly, he will have to buy $ in forward market. The outflow under this option will be as follows: Amount of Bill 130000 Add: Interest for 3 months @5% p.a. 1625 Rs. $ 131625 Amount to be paid in Indian Rupee after 3 month under the forward purchase contract Rs. 6427249 (US$ 131625 X Rs. 48.83) Since outflow of cash is least in (ii) option, it should be opted for. 2012 Question 32: May 2012 RTP The risk free rate of interest rate in USA is 8% p.a. and in UK is 5% p.a. The spot exchange rate between US $ and UK is 1$ = 0.75. Assuming that is interest is compounded on daily basis then at which forward rate of 2 year there will be no opportunity for arbitrage. Further, show how an investor could make risk-less profit, if two year forward price is 1 $ = 0.85. Given e0.-06 = 0.9413 & e-0.16 = 0.852, e0.16 = 1.1735, e-0.1 = 0.9051 2 year Forward Rate will be calculated as follows:
28 SFM - COMPILER F = Se(ruk -rus )t Where F = Forward Rate S = Spot Rate ruk = Risk Free Rate in UK rus = Risk Free Rate in US t = Time Accordingly, F = 0.75e (0.05 0.08)2 = 0.75 0.9413 = 0.706 Thus, 1 US $ = 0.706 If forward rate is 1 UK $ = 0.85$ then an arbitrage opportunity exists. Take following steps (a) Should borrow UK (b) Buy US $ (c) Enter into a short forward contract on US $ Accordingly, The riskless profit would be (a) Say borrow 0.706e-(0.05)(2) = 0.639 and invest in UK for 2 years. (b) Now buy US $ at US $ 1e-(0.08)2 = US $ 0.852, so that after two year it can be used to close out the position. (c) After two year the investment in US $ will become US $ 0.852 e (0.08)(2) = US $ 0.852 x 1.1735 = 1 US $ (d) Sell this US $ for 0.85 and repay loan of 0.639 along with interest i.e 0.706. Thus arbitrage profit will be US$ 0.85 US$ 0.706 = 0.144 $. Question 33: May 2012 RTP True Blue Cosmetics Ltd. is an old line producer of cosmetics products made up of herbals. Their products are popular in India and all over the world but are more popular in Europe. The company invoice in Indian Rupee when it exports to guard itself against the fluctuation in exchange rate. As the company is enjoying monopoly position, the buyer normally never objected to such invoices. However, recently, an order has been received from a whole-saler of France for FFr 80,00,000. The other conditions of the order are as follows: (a) The delivery shall be made within 3 months. (b) The invoice should be FFr.
SFM - COMPILER 29 Since, company is not interested in losing this contract only because of practice of invoicing in Indian Rupee. The Export Manger Mr. E approached the banker of Company seeking their guidance and further course of action. The banker provided following information to Mr. E. (a) Spot rate 1 FFr = Rs. 6.60 (b) Forward rate (90 days) of 1 FFr = Rs. 6.50 (c) Interest rate in India is 9% and in France is 12%. Mr. E entered in forward contract with banker for 90 days to sell FFr at above mentioned rate. When the matter come for consideration before Mr. A, Accounts Manager of company, he approaches you. You as a Forex consultant is required to comment on: (i) Whether there is an arbitrage opportunity exists or not. (ii) Whether the action taken by Mr. E is correct and if bank agrees for negotiation of rate, then at what forward rate company should sell FFr to bank. Invoice amount in Indian Rupee 5,28,00,000 (i) Interest Rate in India 9% p.a. Interest Rate in France = FFr 80,00,000 Rs. 6.60 = Rs. 12% p.a The interest rate differential 9% - 12% = 3% (Positive Interest Differential) Forward Discount = F-S S x 12 n x 100 = 6.5-6.6 6.6 x 12 n x 100 = - 6.061% (forward Discount) Since the forward discount is greater than interest rate differential there will be arbitrage inflow into the country (India). (ii) The decision taken by Mr. E was not correct because as per Interest Rate Parity Theory, forward rate for sale should be 1 FFr = Rs. 6.65, calculated as follows: Let F be the forward rate, then as per Interest Rate Parity theory, it should have been as follows: = F-S S x 12 n = F-6.6 6.6 x 12 3 F = 6.6495 x 100 = -3 x 100 = -3
30 SFM - COMPILER Question 34: May 2012 Paper 8 Marks NP and Co. has imported goods for US $ 7,00,000. The amount is payable after three months. The company has also exported goods for US $ 4,50,000 and this amount is receivable in two months. For receivable amount a forward contract is already taken at 48.40. The market rates for and $ are as under. Spot 48.50 / 70 Two months Three months 25 / 30 points 40 / 45 points The Company wants to cover the risk and it has two options as under : a) To cover payables in the forward market and b) To lag the receivables by one month and cover the risk only for the net amount. No interest for delaying the receivables is earned. Evaluate both the options if the cost of Rupee Funds is 12%. Which option is preferable? (i) To cover payable and receivable in forward Market Amount payable after 3 months $7,00,000 Forward Rate Rs. 48.45 Thus Payable Amount (Rs.) (A) Rs. 3,39,15,000 Amount receivable after 2 months $ 4,50,000 Forward Rate Rs. 48.40 Thus Receivable Amount (Rs.) (B) Rs. 2,17,80,000 Interest @ 12% p.a. for 1 month (C) Rs. 2,17,800 Net Amount Payable in (Rs.) (A) (B) (C) Rs. 1,19,17,200 (ii) Assuming that since the forward contract for receivable was already booked it shall be cancelled if we lag the receivables. Accordingly any profit/ loss on cancellation of contract shall also be calculated and shall be adjusted as follows: Amount Payable ($) $7,00,000 Amount receivable after 3 months $ 4,50,000 Net Amount payable $2,50,000 Applicable Rate Rs. 48.45 Amount payable in (Rs.) (A) Rs. 1,21,12,500 Profit on cancellation of Forward cost (48.90 48.30) 4,50,000 (B) Rs. 2,70,000 Thus net amount payable in (Rs.) (A) + (B) Rs. 1,18,42,500
SFM - COMPILER 31 Since net payable amount is least in case of second option, hence the company should lag receivables. Note: In the question it has not been clearly mentioned that whether quotes given for 2 and 3 months (in points terms) are premium points or direct quotes. Although above solution is based on the assumption that these are direct quotes, but students can also consider them as premium points and solve the question accordingly. Question 35: Nov 2012 RTP A company is considering hedging its foreign exchange risk. It has made a purchase on 1st. January, 2008 for which it has to make a payment of US $ 50,000 on September 30,2008. The present exchange rate is 1 US $ = Rs.40. It can purchase forward 1 US $ at Rs. 39. The company will have to make a upfront premium of 2% of the forward amount purchased. The cost of funds to the company is 10% per annum and the rate of corporate tax is 50%. Ignore taxation. Consider the following situations and compute the Profit/Loss the company will make if it hedges its foreign exchange risk: (i) If the exchange rate on September 30, 2008 is Rs. 42 per US $. (ii) If the exchange rate on September 30, 2008 is Rs. 38 per US $. (Rs.) Present Exchange Rate Rs. 40 = 1 US$ If company purchases US$ 50,000 forward premium is 50000 39 2% 39,000 Interest on Rs. 39,000 for 9 months at 10% 2,925 Total hedging cost 41,925 If exchange rate is Rs. 42 Then gain (Rs. 42 Rs. 39) for US$ 50,000 1,50,000 Less: Hedging cost 41,925 Net gain 1,08,075 If US$ = Rs. 38 Then loss (39 38) for US$ 50,000 50,000 Add: Hedging Cost 41,925 Total Loss 91,925
32 SFM - COMPILER Question 36: Nov 2012 RTP An Indian exporting firm, Rohit and Bros., would be cover itself against a likely depreciation of pound sterling. The following data is given: Receivables of Rohit and Bros : 500,000 Spot rate : Rs. 56.00/ Payment date : 3-months 3 months interest rate : India : 12 per cent per annum What should the exporter do? : UK : 5 per cent per annum Rohit and Bros can cover the risk in the money market. The following steps are required to be taken: Step 1 : Borrow pound sterling for 3- months @ 5% p.a i.e 1.25% for 3 months The borrowing has to be such that at the end of three months, the amount becomes 500,000. the amount borrowed is = 5,00,000 1.0125 = 493,827 Step 2 : Convert the borrowed sum into rupees at the spot rate. This gives: 493,827 Rs. 56 = Rs. 27,654,312 Step 3 : Sell The sum thus obtained is placed in the money market at 12 % p.a i.e 3% for 3 months Amount Receivable = 27,654,312 x 1.03 = Rs. 28,483,941 Question 37: Nov 2012 Paper 5 Marks The US dollar is selling in India at Rs.55.50. If the interest rate for a 6 months borrowing in India is 10% per annum and the corresponding rate in USA is 4%. (i) Do you expect that US dollar will be at a premium or at discount in the Indian Forex Market? (ii) What will be the expected 6-months forward rate for US dollar in India? and (iii) What will be the rate of forward premium or discount? (1) Under the given circumstances, the USD is expected to quote at a premium in India as the interest rate is higher in India (2) According to IRP F S = 1 + ia 1 + ib Where F S = Forward Rate = Spot Rate
SFM - COMPILER 33 ia ib After 6 months, = 6 month interest rate in India = 10% p.a = 5% for 6 months = 6 months interest rate in USA = 4% p.a = 2% for 6 months F 55.5 = 1.05 1.02, therefore F = Rs. 57.13 (3) Forward Premium on $ = F-S S Question 38: = 100 x 12 n 57.13-55.5 55.5 x 100 x 12 6 = 5.87% Nov 2012 Paper 8 Marks Z Ltd. importing goods worth USD 2 million, requires 90 days to make the payment. The overseas supplier has offered a 60 days interest free credit period and for additional credit for 30 days an interest of 8% per annum. The bankers of Z Ltd offer a 30 days loan at 10% per annum and their quote for foreign exchange is as follows: Rs. Spot 1 USD 56.50 60 days forward for 1 USD 57.10 90 days forward for 1 USD 57.50 (i) Pay the supplier in 60 days If the payment is made to supplier in 60 days the applicable forward rate would be for 1 USD Rs.57.10 Payment Due USD 2,00,000 Outflow in Rupees (2,00,000 x 57.10) Rs.114,200,000 Add : Interest on loan for 30 days @ 10% p.a Rs.951,667 Total Outflow Rs.115,151,667 (ii) Availing supplier s offer of 90 days credit Amount Payable USD 2,00,000 Add : Interest on the credit period for 30 days @ 8% p.a USD 13,333 Total Outflow USD 2,13,333 Applicable forward Rate Rs.57.50 Total Outflow (2,13,333 x 57.5) Rs.115,766,648 Decision : Z Ltd should pay the supplier in 60 days