E(r) The Capital Market Line (CML)

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The Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) B. Espen Eckbo 2011 We have so far studied the relevant portfolio opportunity set (mean- variance efficient portfolios) We now study more specifically portfolio demand, for a given supply of stocks Key question: If everyone holds efficient portfolios, what must stock prices be to clear the market (i.e., results in 100% of the supply of shares being held by investors) Eckbo (26) 2 1

Assumption 1: Perfect markets Zero transactions costs All assets (stocks, bonds, human capital, real estate, etc.) are tradable in perfectly divisible amounts Zero taxes Competition prevents any individual from affecting security prices Unlimited short sales and borrowing and lending at the risk-free rate r f Eckbo (26) 3 Assumption 2: Rational investors Investors have a one-period horizon and preferences over the mean (E) and return variance ( 2 )only. I.e., they have quadratic utility or, alternatively, returns are jointly normally distributed Investors have homogenous and rational expectations. Thus, the location of the MVE frontier is the same for all investors Investors may have different risk tolerances. Thus, they may hold different combinations of the risk-free asset and the risky portfolio Eckbo (26) 4 2

Implications Every investor solves the passive portfolio problem studied earlier, and thus holds a combination of the risk- free asset and the tangency portfolio on the MVE frontier Since everyone draws the same CAL (homogenous expectations), everyone also holds the same tangency portfolio Since all securities must be held by someone in equilibrium this tangency portfolio must be the market portfolio M of all assets Eckbo (26) 5 E(r) The Capital Market Line (CML) Investor j borrows an invests in M Mean-Variance Efficient (MVE) Market Portfolio M (tangency) R f 0 Investor ilends and invests in M (r) Eckbo (26) 6 3

M is a portfolio of all risky securities held in proportion to their market value: x im = (i s value)/(total value of all securities) The expression for the CML: Form a portfolio of M and the risk-free asset F: E p = x F r F + (1-x F )E M p = (1-x F ) M 1-x F = p / M E(r p ) = r F + [(E(r M ) - r F )/ M ] p (CML) Eckbo (26) 7 The CML is the locus of all MV efficient portfolios. Thus, this equation prices all efficient portfolios only Since individual assets are MV inefficient, the CML does not provide a pricing equation for individual assets Recall that for MV efficient portfolios, the portfolio s variance, 2 p, consists of systematic (nondiversifiable nondiversifiable) risk only This is not true for individual securities and inefficient portfolios Eckbo (26) 8 4

Recall from earlier that security i s marginal contribution to the risk of portfolio p is given by the covariance ip (multiplied by the weight x i ) Let s standardize this covariance by the total t variance of the portfolio, and let s focus on portfolio M: im im / 2 M Intuitively, this beta risk must what the market rewards investors for carrying You can costlessly get rid of the remaining unsystematic risk of the security by placing it in a large (efficient) portfolio like M Eckbo (26) 9 We want a pricing model that relates a security s beta risk to the market price per unit of beta risk This is precisely what the CAPM does Note that the market price per unit of beta-risk must be the same for all securities Also referred to as the law of one price, or a no-arbitrage condition In a CAPM world, it implies that two stocks with the same amount of beta-risk must have the same expected returns Mathematically, you derive the CAPM pricing equation by equating the slope of the CML and the MV frontier at M Eckbo (26) 10 5

or E i = r F + [(E M -r F )/ 2 M] im E i = r F + im (E M -r F ) Security Market Line or CAPM where, as before, im = im / 2 M Eckbo (26) 11 E i The Security Market Line (CAPM) E M r F 0 1 im Eckbo (26) 12 6

All securities lie on the Security Market Line. It is thus a pricing equation for any individual security Rewrite the CAPM: E i = (1- im )r F + im E M Since (1- im )+ im = 1, the right-hand hand side is a portfolio where you invest the proportion (1- im ) in the risk-free asset F and im in the market M Thus, in the CAPM, security i s expected return simply equals the expected return on an efficient benchmark portfolio with the same systematic risk im Eckbo (26) 13 Note: You can in principle use any efficient portfolio as a benchmark portfolio. It works with M since the CAPM implies that M is MV efficient. Recall that the model requires M to include all assets in the universe. Thus, it is fundamentally not a testable concept. Empirical tests instead asks whether the CAPM works well and better than another model Eckbo (26) 14 7

Beta as a regression coefficient Consider the time-series regression model: r it -r Ft = i + i (r Mt -r Ft ) + it The OLS regression coefficient is i = im / 2 M (assumes E =0, cov(r M, i )=0) which is identical to our earlier beta definition The variance of the regression equation: 2 i = 2 i 2 M + 2 Total risk=systematic risk+unsystematic risk Eckbo (26) 15 Relaxing the CAPM assumptions What if there are no risk-free assets, or investors have mulitperiod investment horizons, or investors have heterogeneous expectations? For each of these complications, check whether the market portfolio M still mean-variance efficient Eckbo (26) 16 8

What if no risk-free asset? Even a risk-free bond is risk-free only if you hold it to maturity If the risk-free rate of return changes over time, selling the bond before maturity produces an uncertain value. So what if there is no risk-free bonds with the maturity that you want? In the CAPM, any asset or portfolio is risk- free as long as it has a zero beta with M Let Z be such a zero-beta portfolio Eckbo (26) 17 E(r) CAPM without a risk-free asset Investor 2 invests in T 2 T 1 T 2 The Market Portfolio M is a combination of T 1 and T 2 and therefore MVE E Z 0 Investor 1 invests in T1 (r) Eckbo (26) 18 9

Notice: Each investor now invests in a MVE tangency portfolio T Since a combination of MVE portfolios (with positive weights) is itself MVE, the market portfolio M is still MVE Consequently, the CAPM holds, but with the portfolio Z (which is not MVE) acting as the risk-free asset: E i = E Z + im (E M - E Z ) Eckbo (26) 19 What if multiperiod horizon? CAPM assumes investors have a one- period horizon: invest today and consume returns tomorrow (static model) If investors instead form portfolios based on a multiperiod time horizon, they may worry about stochastic changes in the investment and consumption opportunity sets over time Example: If you are a heavy consumer of corn, you may want to form a portfolio more heavily weighted towards corn-farm stocks in order to hedge your purchasing power for corn in the future Eckbo (26) 20 10

E(r) Multiperiod investment horizon MVE frontier at t 1 MVE frontier at t 2 0 Optimal portfolio for investor i (r) (r) (change in risk is now relevant) Eckbo (26) 21 Investor are still forming efficient portfolios However, in Figure 4, their portfolios are efficient in the three-dimensional space (E,, ). This efficient portfolio is no longer efficient in the (E, )-space alone. As a result, the market portfolio M is also not MVE and the CAPM does not hold The correct model is one where the new hedge factor (here ) ) is added to the model with its own factor loading or beta Eckbo (26) 22 11

What if investors have heterogeneous expectations? Now each investor draws his or her own location for the MV efficient i frontier Each investor i finds his or her optimal risky portfolio as the tangency portfolio T i As always, the market portfolio M is the value-weighted portfolio of all the individual T i s Since there is no one MVE frontier, M is no longer MVE, and the CAPM does not hold Eckbo (26) 23 E(r) Heterogeneous expectations T 1 MVE frontier as estimated by investor 1 T 2 MVE frontier as estimated by investor 2 0 (r) The market portfolio M is not MVE Eckbo (26) 24 12

Nontradable assets: What about human capital (HC)? In the CAPM, the market portfolio contains all assets including your human capital But, in practice, HC is nontradable (slavery is forbidden) Also, for many, HC is the largest risky asset in their individual portfolio CAPM breaks down as the market portfolio is no longer efficient Need to take into account the covariance between HC and the tradable assets Creates a second pricing factor Eckbo (26) 25 Conclusion CAPM is a simple, static pricing model making strong assumptions It provides important insights about priced risk in equilibrium However, empirical evidence suggests that the usual stock market proxy for M is not MVE The true asset pricing model likely to have more than a single pricing factor Will therefore turn to multifactor, APT models Eckbo (26) 26 13