Lecture 3: Return vs Risk: Mean-Variance Analysis

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Lecture 3: Return vs Risk: Mean-Variance Analysis 3.1 Basics We will discuss an important trade-off between return (or reward) as measured by expected return or mean of the return and risk as measured by variance of the return. For simplicity, we only consider a single period model from time 0 to time 1. Suppose there are n assets in a portfolio. For each i = 1,..., n, let X i (0) and X i (1) be the time 0 and time 1 values of asset i respectively, and define the return of asset i in the time period to be R i = X i(1) X i (0). X i (0) (3.1) The portfolio can be represented by (c 1,..., c n ), where c i is the proportion of the initial capital held in asset i, i = 1,..., n. Note that some c i could be negative, representing shorting asset i. Still, we impose the constraint n c i = 1. (3.2) We can define the overall return R for the portfolio in the same manner, and have the relationship R = n c i R i. (3.3) Imagine at time 0 an investor is trying to decide what portfolio will yield a high return R at time 1 while reducing the risk. Since R involves the future, it is regarded as a random variable. Some basic statistical background for random variables will be summarized in Appendix, such as probability distribution, mean, variance, covariance and correlation. Those definitions and useful properties will be applied to the following examples. 3.2 Examples See the notation and definitions introduced in Appendix. For asset i, let µ i = ER i and σi 2 = V ar(r i ) be the expected return (mean) and risk (variance). For assets i and j, let σ ij = Cov(R i, R j ) denote the covariance between returns R i and R j. Note that σ ii = σi 2 is just the variance of asset i. 1

Example 1 Assume that all returns are uncorrelated (σ ij = 0 for all i and j) and have the same risk (σi 2 = σ2 for all i). If we buy an equal number of shares for all n stocks in the portfolio (c i = 1/n for all i), then V ar(r) = σ 2 /n, i.e. the overall risk for the portfolio is only 1/n of the individual asset risk. The more uncorrelated different stocks included in the portfolio, the lower overall risk for the portfolio. This example illustrates that diversification reduces risk. Example 2 Consider a portfolio consisting of two assets. It follows from the property (P2) in Appendix that V ar(r) = c 2 1σ1 2 + c 2 2σ2 2 + 2c 1 c 2 σ 12, which measures the portfolio risk. For simplicity we assume no borrowing, i.e. both c 1 and c 2 are positive. Given µ 1, µ 2, σ 1, σ 2, c 1 and c 2, consider V ar(r) in the following three cases: Case 1: σ 12 < 0. Placing negatively correlated assets in the same portfolio will reduce the portfolio risk the idea of hedging. Case 2: σ 12 = 0. In a portfolio containing uncorrelated assets, the portfolio risk is a weighted sum of the individual asset risks. A suggestion: if it is not obvious how to find negatively correlated stocks when constructing your portfolio, you should at least include companies from those industries/sectors which only have loose connections. Case 3: σ 12 > 0. The portfolio risk will be greater than the weighted sum of the risks associated with those individual stocks if the portfolio consists of stocks that belong to the same industries/sectors, i.e. they tend to go up or down together. Example 3 Consider a portfolio consisting of two perfectly correlated assets, i.e. corr(r 1, R 2 ) = 1 (or equivalently, σ 12 = σ 1 σ 2 ). Hence V ar(r) = c 2 1σ1 2 + c 2 2σ2 2 + 2c 1 c 2 σ 12 = (c 1 σ 1 + c 2 σ 2 ) 2. Suppose µ 1 = 0.1, σ 1 = 0.08, µ 2 = 0.14, and σ 2 = 0.18. We can set c 1 = 1.8 and c 2 = 0.8, which means that for every $100 invested, we long asset 1 with $180 and short asset 2 with $80. The expected return for the portfolio will be ER = 1.8 0.1 + ( 0.8) 0.14 = 0.068. But more importantly, V ar(r) = 0, which implies that the portfolio is risk-free. In other words, to avoid an arbitrage opportunity, any available risk-free investment (such as a bank account) has to have a return rate equal to 0.068. Such an arbitrage opportunity, even if it exists, cannot last long. (Why?) 2

There is a trade-off between raising the expected return ER and reducing the risk V ar(r) for a portfolio. In general, you cannot achieve both at the same time. Here is an important portfolio optimization problem: Suppose we know µ i, σ i and σ ij for all i, j = 1,..., n. Given the mean return µ = ER, construct a portfolio (c 1,..., c n ) such that its risk n n σ 2 = V ar(r) = j=1 c i c j σ ij is minimized. For n 3, the problem can be solved by using calculus. Here we only consider the special case with two assets. Example 4 Suppose µ 1 µ 2. The two constraints c 1 µ 1 + c 2 µ 2 = µ and c 1 + c 2 = 1 yield c 1 = µ µ 2 µ 1 µ 2 and c 2 = µ 1 µ µ 1 µ 2. For example, with µ 1 = 0.15, σ 1 = 0.1, µ 2 = 0.1, σ 2 = 0.1 and σ 12 = 0, we have c 1 = 20µ 2, c 2 = 3 20µ and σ 2 = 4(µ 0.1) 2 + (0.3 2µ) 2, which demonstrates the relationship between µ and σ 2. The minimum risk σ 2 = 0.005 is attained when µ = 0.125. In this case c 1 = c 2 = 1/2. In practice, the parameters µ i, σ i, σ ij, i, j = 1,..., n need not be given. estimated based on historical data (see Homework 4). They should be 3.3 Appendix Assume X and Y are two discrete random variables, each having a finite number of possible values: {x 1,..., x m } for X and {y 1,..., y n } for Y. For a given function g of one variable, define the expectation E[g(X)] = m g(x i )P (X = x i ). (3.4) Using various functions g enables us to evaluate important features regarding X. Here are two of them. µ = EX = m σ 2 = V ar(x) = E x i P (X = x i ) (mean of X); (3.5) [ (X µ) 2] = E(X 2 ) µ 2 (variance of X). (3.6) σ = SD(X) = V ar(x) is called the standard deviation of X. 3

Similarly, for a given function G of two variables, define the expectation m n E[G(X, Y )] = j=1 G(x i, y j ) P (X = x i, Y = y j ). (3.7) In particular, the covariance between X and Y is defined by Cov(X, Y ) = E[(X EX)(Y EY )] = E(XY ) EX EY. (3.8) Moreover, the correlation between X and Y is defined by corr(x, Y ) = Cov(X, Y ) SD(X) SD(Y ). (3.9) EX and V ar(x) are summaries of the probability distribution of X, measuring the central tendency and dispersion respectively. Cov(X, Y ) or corr(x, Y ) is a summary of the joint probability distribution of X and Y, measuring certain statistical (linear) dependence between X and Y. X and Y are said to be (statistically) independent if P (X = x i, Y = y j ) = P (X = x i ) P (Y = y j ) for any possible pair of (x i, y j ), i = 1,..., m, j = 1,..., n. X and Y are said to be uncorrelated if Cov(X, Y ) = corr(x, Y ) = 0. Note that if X and Y are independent, then they are uncorrelated. But the converse need not be true. Hence correlation zero is a weaker version of independence. Here is a list of useful properties, where X, Y, Z are random variables and c, c 1, c 2 are constants. (P1) E(c) = c, E(cX) = c EX and E(X + Y ) = EX + EY. (P2) V ar(c) = 0, V ar(cx) = c 2 V ar(x) and V ar(x + Y ) = V ar(x) + V ar(y ) + 2 Cov(X, Y ). (P3) Cov(X, X) = V ar(x) and Cov(c 1 X, c 2 Y ) = c 1 c 2 Cov(X, Y ). (P4) Cov(X + Y, Z) = Cov(Z, X + Y ) = Cov(X, Z) + Cov(Y, Z). (P5) 1 corr(x, Y ) 1. (P6) If X and Y are independent, then Cov(X, Y ) = corr(x, Y ) = 0. Homework 3: (due Tuesday 9/20) (1) Assume that the particular portfolio given in Example 3 is available to you in two consecutive time periods, along with a local bank account with interest rate 5% in the 1st period and 7% in the 2nd period. What would be your investment strategy in these two periods? 4

(2) Consider a portfolio with three assets in it. Assume µ 1 = 0.1, µ 2 = 0.2, µ 3 = 0.3 and σ1 2 = σ2 2 = σ2 3 = 0.01. Suppose you have a grand total $1,000 to allocate in the portfolio subject to the constraint that you have to put $200 in asset 1. How would you allocate the remaining wealth ($800) in assets 2 and 3 in the following two cases respectively, in order to obtain an expected return 0.22 for the portfolio? Case 1: σ 23 = 0; Case 2: σ 23 = 0.5. Do you use the same or different allocation strategies in these two cases? Explain why. 5