Rho and Delta. Paul Hollingsworth January 29, Introduction 1. 2 Zero coupon bond 1. 3 FX forward 2. 5 Rho (ρ) 4. 7 Time bucketing 6

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Rho and Delta Paul Hollingsworth January 29, 2012 Contents 1 Introduction 1 2 Zero coupon bond 1 3 FX forward 2 4 European Call under Black Scholes 3 5 Rho (ρ) 4 6 Relationship between Rho and Delta 5 7 Time bucketing 6 8 Summary 7 1 Introduction In this article I ll describe the basic idea of viewing a derivative in terms of a portfolio of zero coupon bonds. Viewing the derivative this way provides a nice way to hedge and analyze both the spot risk (Delta) and interest rate risk (Rho) to determine if we are properly hedged. Just as a spot trade is the exchange of one asset for another at a given price, a forward trade can be viewed as an exchange of one zero coupon bond for another zero coupon bond at a given ratio (strike). By executing forward trades instead of spot trades, both the delta and rho risk of a portfolio can be hedged. 2 Zero coupon bond A zero coupon bond is a pure cash flow of 1 unit of currency that will be paid out at some time t years from now. In t years you will receive 1 unit of currency. What s the arbitrage driven price of such a cash flow? Suppose I have a Euro bank account which pays a continuously compounded interest rate of r e and I deposit x 0 Euros in it. So for any arbitrarily small time step dt, I have x(t) Euros in the account, and the amount of interest I get, dx, is determined by: 1

Integrating both sides and noting that x(0) = x 0, we get: dx = r e x(t)dt (1) dx x(t) = r edt (2) dx x(t) = r e dt (3) ln x(t) = r e t + C (4) x(t) = x 0 exp( r e t) (5) So if I deposit x 0 Euros then after time t this will have grown to x 0 exp(r e t) Euros in the bank account. I can use this bank account to replicate a zero coupon bond. We want to determine the fair value of a zero coupon bond paying a notional of 1 Euro at some time t in the future. I can find the quantity x 0 that will ensure that I have 1 Euro at time t in the future with: x 0 exp(r e t) = 1 (6) x 0 = exp( r e t) (7) Therefore, the arbitrage free price of a zero coupon bond that pays 1 at time t is exp( r e t) Euros: B E (r e, t) = exp( r e t) (8) exp( r t t) is also called the Euro discount factor for time t. Any Euro cash flow that is payable at time t can be converted into a value today by multiplying by this discount factor. The step of converting a future cash flow into its value today implied by current interest rates is called present valuing : D(r e, t) = exp( r e t) (9) x Euros payable at time t = xd(r e, t) (10) It s helpful to think of everything in terms of some fictional currency so that equations work out symmetrically regardless of the numeraire. If E denotes the value of 1 Euro in beads, then the value of a zero coupon bond in beads is: Another name for a zero coupon bond is a zero strike call. B(E, r e, t) = E exp( r e t) (11) 3 FX forward An FX forward is an agreement to exchange one asset in return for another at a fixed strike, X, at some point t in the future. For example, a EURUSD FX forward struck at X is an agreement to exchange X US dollars for 1 Euro at a point t in the future. 2

But this is the identical position to owing (i.e. being short) X US zero coupon bonds and owning (i.e. being long) 1 Euro zero coupon bond. Let s denote the Euro bond price in beads as E B, and the US dollar bond price in beads as U B. We have: E B (E, r e, t) = E exp( r e t) (12) U B (U, r u, t) = U exp( r u t) (13) A forward agreement struck at X is just the sum of being long the Euro bond and short X of the US dollar bond: F (E B, U B ) = E B XU B (14) = E exp( r e t) XU exp( r u t) (15) This determines the fair value of a FX forward contract given the strike X. However, typically things work in reverse to this - the strike X is negotiated such that the forward contract has a value of 0 when it is initiated: F (E B, U B ) = E B XU B (16) 0 = E B XU B (17) X = E B U B (18) = E exp(r et) U exp(r u t) or alternatively, the spot price times the ratio of the discount factors (19) = E U exp((r e r u )t) (20) = E U exp((r e r u )t) (21) = E U D(r e, t) D(r u, t) (22) (23) People sometimes treat r e r u as a single interest rate associated with the EURUSD currency pair. In reality, X is observed in the market, from which one can imply r e r u. Given some basic set of discount factors, all other discount factors can be implied by the forward differentials. 4 European Call under Black Scholes A EURUSD Call option strike at strike X is the right, but not the obligation, to exchange X US dollars for 1 Euro. Its value in US dollars, E U, is given by the formula C U (E U, r e, r u, X, t, σ) = E U exp( r e t)φ(d 1 ) X exp( r u t)φ(d 2 ) (24) 3

Where d 1 = ln E U X + (r u r e + σ2 2 )t σ t (25) d 2 = d 1 σ t (26) We can re-express this with all asset values in beads to get the value C, in beads : with C(E, U, r e, r u, X, t, σ) = E exp( r e t)φ(d 1 ) XU exp( r u t)φ(d 2 ) (27) d 1 = ln E exp( ret) U exp( r ut) + 1 2 σ2 t σ t (28) d 2 = d 1 σ t (29) But notice that the terms involving the asset prices are always together with their discount factors. We can write the Black Scholes formula as a function of bond prices. A EURUSD Call option has the following value in terms of the Euro and US dollar bond: with 5 Rho (ρ) C(E B, U B, X, t, σ) = E B Φ(d 1 ) XU B Φ(d 2 ) (30) d 1 = ln E B U B + 1 2 σ2 t σ t (31) d 2 = d 1 σ t (32) Suppose I have some instrument whose value, V is a function of the instanteously compounded interest rate for asset A: V = f(r A ) (33) We define rho for asset A, ρ A, to be the sensitivity of V in units of A, V A, to a change in r A. ρ A = V A r A (34) = 1 V A r A (35) So for example, a EURUSD Call option s Euro rho, ρ E, is the sensitivity of the Euro value of the option, C E, to the Euro interest rate, r e. Similarly, the US dollar Rho, ρ U, is the sensitivity of the US dollar value of the option, C U, to the US dollar interest rate, r u : 4

6 Relationship between Rho and Delta There s a useful relationship between the rho and the delta of a bond: ρ E = C E r e (36) = 1 C E r e (37) ρ U = C U r u (38) = 1 C U r u (39) E B = E exp( r e t) (40) E = (41) = exp( r e t) (42) ρ E = 1 E r e (43) = 1 E te exp( r et) (44) = t exp( r e t) (45) ρ E = t E (46) So for any bond, we know that ρ = t. In fact, this also holds true for any derivative whose value is purely expressed as a function of one or more bond prices. i.e. suppose we have some derivative whose valuation function V is purely expressed as a function E B - so other than its dependence on E B it has no dependence on E or r e separately. 5

V = f(e B ) (47) E = V (48) = V (49) = V exp( r e t) (50) ρ E = 1 V E r e (51) = 1 V E r e (52) = 1 V te exp( r e t) E (53) = V exp( r e t) (54) ρ E = t E (55) In words: the chain rule says that both the rho and the delta for the derivative are a linear multiplier of V the rho and delta of the underlying bond. This multiplier,, is the same for both the rho and the delta, therefore the linear relationship holds for the derivative because it holds for the bond. 7 Time bucketing This relationship also gives us an algorithm for time bucketing the delta risk. Suppose we have some EURUSD exotic option (e.g. a barrier) that we know has interest rate sensitivity to dates t 1 and t 2. So we ll assume that there are Euro and US dollar zero coupon bonds for those maturities: E B1 = E exp( r E1 t 1 ) (56) E B2 = E exp( r E2 t 2 ) (57) U B1 = U exp( r U1 t 1 ) (58) U B2 = U exp( r U2 t 2 ) (59) Where E B1 is the value, in beads, of a zero coupon Euro bond expiring at time t 1 and so on. So we re saying that the derivative, V, is not just a function of E and U, the relative values of Euros to US dollars, but is also a function of the zero coupon bond prices for maturities t 1, t 2 for both assets: V = f(e, U, E B1, E B2, U B1, U B2 ) (60) So we re saying that we are wishing to model the derivative as if we had this function, but in reality what we have is a function, M, that depends on E, B, Y E, the Euro yield curve, and Y U, the US dollar yield curve: V = M = f(e, U, Y E, Y U ) (61) 6

To time bucket the Euro delta, we can use the following approach. We use finite differencing to determine the ρ to each maturity by bumping Y E and observing its effect on M: ρ E1 1 E M(Y E + δ) M(Y E ) δ Where Y E + δ means the Euro yield curve perturbed such that only r E1 is different. We do this for each of the dates that we care about. That is, we time-bucket the rho exposure. Once we have the Rho for each date we care about, we use ρ = t to determine the amount of the total Delta, M, that belongs at each maturity. The remaining delta can remain as a spot delta, ( V ), because t = 0 for this case. What we end up with is the portfolio of zero coupon bonds, and raw cash, which most closely replicates the derivative s interest rate and spot risk. This can then be used to inform which forward trades we do in order to hedge. 8 Summary The classic Black Scholes argument for hedging a derivative assumes that interest rates stay constant. In practice, interest rates can change over time and therefore there is interest rate risk that needs to be hedged as well as spot risk. If you hedge a derivative by trading a portfolio of bonds, both the spot risk (Delta) and the interest rate risk (Rho) can be hedged simultaneously. A forward trade is equivalent to exchanging two zero coupon bonds, therefore an equivalent statement is to say that a derivative can be properly hedged for both delta and rho risk by executing forward trades of the appropriate maturity. Determining the portfolio of zero coupon bonds which most accurately manages the delta and rho risk of a portfolio is also called time bucketing of delta. A way to do this is to determine the Rho risk to different maturities and then determine the implied delta risk via the relationship ρ = t. (62) 7