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M.I.T. Spring 999 Sloan School of Management 5.45 Solution to Problem Set. Investment has an NPV of 0000 + 20000 + 20% = 6667. Similarly, investments 2, 3, and 4 have NPV s of 5000, -47, and 267, respectively. The internal rate of return on investment is defined by + r 0000 = 20000 r = 00%. Similarly, investments 2, 3, and 4 have rates of return of 40%, 0%, and 50%, respectively. a The most valuable investment is, since it has the highest NPV. b Investment should be undertaken, because it has the highest NPV. 2. a First, from the effective annual rate, we get the monthly rate, x: x = + 0.08 x =.6434%. The APR is.6434% =. The total payment that needs to be made other than the down payment is 300,000-5,000 = 285,000. It should be paid in 30 = 360 months. This is an annuity problem. The monthly payment is 285000 = 2036. + 360 The amortization table is table. The interest is equal to the outstanding principal times /. b Because your interest payments on the mortgage are tax-deductible, you get tax credits which are treated as cash inflows. For the next three years, the tax credits are: On 04/0/98, get credits for the interest paid during /0/97 to /0/98 month to month 2 sum = 3666, tax credit = 027. On 04/0/99, get credits for the interest paid during 0/0/98 to /0/99 month 3 to month 4 sum = 2884, tax credit = 68.

On 04/0/2000, get credits for the interest paid during 0/0/99 to 09/0/99 month 5 to month 23 sum = 6280, tax credit = 4558. The cash flows from buying the apartment are summarized in table 2. Note the following. First, the selling price is 320000 5% = 304000. Second, the PV of the mortgage is computed using the annuity formula 2036 = 43399. + 23 Third, the closing payment on the mortgage is the outstanding principal on September, 999, plus the one month interest, i.e. 280002 + = 28804. Month Monthly Outstanding Interest Principal Outstanding Principal Payment Principal Reduction After Payment 2036 285000.00 833.69 202.3 284797.69 2 2036 284797.69 832.39 203.6 284594.08 3 2036 284594.08 83.08 204.92 284389.6 4 2036 284389.6 829.76 206.24 28482.92 5 2036 28482.92 828.43 207.57 283975.35 6 2036 283975.35 827.0 208.90 283766.45 7 2036 283766.45 825.75 20.25 283556.20 8 2036 283556.20 824.40 2.60 283344.60 9 2036 283344.60 823.04 2.96 2833.64 0 2036 2833.64 82.67 24.33 28297.3 2036 28297.3 820.29 25.7 28270.60 2036 28270.60 88.90 27.0 282484.50 3 2036 282484.50 87.5 28.49 282266.0 4 2036 282266.0 86.0 29.90 282046. 5 2036 282046. 84.68 22.32 28824.79 6 2036 28824.79 83.26 222.74 28602.05 7 2036 28602.05 8.83 224.7 28377.88 8 2036 28377.88 80.39 225.6 2852.26 9 2036 2852.26 808.93 227.07 280925.20 20 2036 280925.20 807.47 228.53 280696.67 2 2036 280696.67 806.00 230.00 280466.67 22 2036 280466.67 804.52 23.48 280235.20 23 2036 280235.20 803.03 232.97 280002.23 Table : The Amortization Table 2

description time cash flow discount factor NPV down payment 0/0/97-5000 -5000 selling house 0/0/99 304000 + 24 26063 close mortgage 0/0/99-28804 + 24-24602 tax credit 4/0/98 027 + 6 988 tax credit 4/0/99 68 + 8 5460 tax credit 4/0/00 4558 + 30 3760 mortgage /97-9/99-2036/mo -43399 total -2962 Table 2: Cash Flows from Buying If you rent, the NPV is 800 + = 4068. + 24 Note here the annuity formula needs to be modified: instead of getting the first payment at the end of the first period, we are getting it at the beginning. There are two ways to modify it: You could treat the total cash flow as the sum of the first monthly payment discount factor is and an annuity of 23 months. You could treat the total cash flow as an annuity. By doing that you are effectively postponing each payment for one month, so after getting the result, you need to multiply by + monthly rate to get back the correct figure. I am using the second method. You should check and verify that you get the same result by the first method. Our NPV analysis shows that it is better to buy. c The rent R that makes you indifferent between renting and buying is defined by 3. a There are two reasons: R + = 2962 R = 307. + 24 The PV of the payment that the viatical insurance company receives when the patient dies decreases. More monthly payments need to be made by the viatical insurance company. b Denote the monthly rate by x. If the patient lives for one year, the present value of the payments received by the viatical insurance company is 75 + x 5000 + 20000 x + x + x. 3

This present value must be 0. Solving this non-linear equation numerically with Solver on Excel for instance we get x =.9784%. The APR is 23.74% and the EAR is 26.50%. If the patient lives for two years the equation becomes 5000 75 + x x + x 24 + 20000 = 0. + x 24 We now get x = 0.7665%. The APR is 9.20% and the EAR is 9.60%. c The monthly rate is: + 5% =.75%. The company is willing to pay 50000 200 +.75% = 425. +.75%.75% +.75% 4. a Probably Crosby, Stills & Nash, because they have a more predictable cash flow. b This is an annuity problem. If C is the yearly cash flow, the present value is C. 7.5% + 7.5% 0 Since this present value has to be 00M, C is 4.57M. c The present value is simply 5/7% =24.29M. 5. a The yearly contribution is 2000 28% = 440. Since you pay tax on the interest income, the relevant interest rate is 6% 28% = 4.32%. To compute the money that you have at your retirement, you can use the future value formula with 30 cash flows. You can do this in a spreadsheet. However, there is a simpler way. You can compute the present value of the cash flows, using the annuity formula, and then compute the future value of this present value, multiplying by + 4.32% 30. The future value is 440 + 4.32% 30 = 8528. 4.32% + 4.32% 30 b The yearly contribution is the same as in the first part. However, the interest rate is 6%. The before-tax money that you have at retirement is 440 6% + 6% 30 = 3844. + 6% 30 You pay tax on the interest income. The interest income is the difference between the 3844 and the money you would have had if the interest rate was 0%. Therefore, the interest income is 3844 30 440 = 70644 and the tax is 70644 0.28 = 9780. Your retirement money is 3844 9780 = 94064. 4

c The yearly contribution is 2000 and the interest rate is 6%. The before-tax money at retirement is 2000 + 6% 30 = 586. 6% + 6% 30 You retirement money is 586 28% = 3844. d The benefit should increase, because the deferred tax on which interest accrues is greater. 6. a The cash flow table is Cost Revenue Net Cash Flow Year 0 4.6 2.52-2.08 Year 0.7 0.88 0.8 Year 2 2.8 3.44 0.64 Year 3 3. 3.84 0.74 Year 4 2.5 3. 0.62 Year 5.7 2.58 0.88 Year 6 0 0.42 0.42 The revenues are computed as follows Year 0: 6.8 5% = 2.52. Year :. 0.2 = 0.88. Year 2: 4.3 0.2 = 3.44. Year 3: 4.8 0.2 = 3.84. Year 4: 3.9 0.2 = 3.. Year 5: 2.7 0.2 + 6.8 5% 0.5 = 2.58. Year 6: 6.8 5% 0.5 = 0.42. The NPV is 223700. Since this is a positive NPV project, the company should take the project. b The IRR is 5.33%. Since it is greater than %, the company should take the project. The payback is 4 years and the discounted payback is 5 years. Since, these are smaller or equal than 5 years, the company should take the project. c The cash flow with the new payment schedule is cost revenue net cash flow year 0 3.6 2.52 -.08 year.83 0.88-0.95 year 2 2.8 3.44 0.64 year 3 3. 3.84 0.74 year 4 2.5 3. 0.62 year 5.7 2.58 0.88 year 6 0 0.42 0.42 5

The year 0 cost is now 3.6M and the year cost is 0.7+.3=.83M. The NPV is 24800, so the original payment plan should be taken. The IRR is 5.7%. If we base our decision on IRR, we should take the new payment plan. However, this is the wrong decision. 6