PAPER II BOOKLET FOR OBJECTIVE TYPE TEST

Transcription

1 DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOK LET UN TIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO Code : 0615PIIFM PAPER II BOOKLET FOR OBJECTIVE TYPE TEST Full Marks : 100 Time Allowed : 1 Hour GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS Candidates should read the following instructions carefully before answering the questions : 1. Verify the seriality of the page numbers. If there is any discrepancy, bring it to the Invigilator s notice. 2. All the boxes, ovals and the entries in the Answer Sheet must be filled up using Black Ballpoint Pen only. 3. Before you mark in the Answer Sheet, please fill the following in the appropriate places : Write name of the Examination Centre. Write your full name in Capital Letters. Put your Left Thumb Impression and Full Signature. Write your Roll No. (10 digits) and darken the corresponding 10 ovals. Darken the oval corresponding to your Category. Darken the oval to denote your Gender. 4. All questions are of Multiple Choice Answer type. Answer all the questions. Please darken only one of the four probable answers, [B], [C] or [D]. Darkening more than one oval means you are writing a wrong answer. 5. There will be negative marking for each wrong 1:4. 6. There is a blank page at the end of this Booklet for Rough Work. Roll No. must be written on the blank sheet used for Rough Work. The sheet should not be torn out of the Question Booklet. 7. Hand over the OMR Answer Sheet to the Invigilator before leaving the Examination Hall. 8. Please do not leave the Examination Hall until the examination is over. 9. Please do not fold, scratch, scrimp or tear any portion of the Answer Sheet by any chance as this will render the Answer Sheet unsuitable for computer evaluation. Keep the Sheet away from gum. 10. Please ensure that the blank dotted line along the left side of margin of side 1 as also the right side of side 2 is not damaged in any way as it may affect the computer evaluation. 11. If error is detected in any particular question, the candidates are advised not to attempt the same. The Commission do not award any marks to questions having any type of error.

2 0615PIIFM/ Which committee was appointed in 1944 to give recommendations to improve Co-operative Movement? Hilton-Young [B] MacLagan [C] Radhakrishnan [D] Rodgers 2. Which Sector is the major beneficiary of Co-operative Banking System till 1969? Agriculture [B] Education [C] Service [D] Export 3. Which of the following is the apex of the three-tier Co-operative Structure in India? State Co-operative Banks [B] District Central Co-operative Banks [C] Union Co-operative Banks [D] District Co-operative Banks 4. Which programme was instituted to help the farmers across timely and adequately credit? Kisan Credit Card Yojna [B] MNREGA [C] RSBY [D] Aam Admi Bima Yojna 5. Which of the following loans are given to traders, industrialists and also to agriculturists against some collateral securities with a maturity period varying between 1 to 10 years? Term loans [B] Consumer credit [C] Money at call [D] Infrastructure loan 6. Which of the following is/are the major function(s) of RRB? Providing banking facilities to rural and semi-urban areas [B] Carrying out government programmes [C] Providing para-banking facilities like locker facilities, debit and credit cards [D] All of the above 7. When was Indian Banking Act come into force? 1948 [B] 1949 [C] 1950 [D] 1951

3 0615PIIFM/5 3 [ P.T.O. 8. A centralized database with online connectivity to branches, Internet as well as ATM network which has been adopted by almost all major banks of our country is known as investment banking [B] core banking [C] mobile banking [D] national banking 9. Which of the following Acts is specially launched to facilitate banks in recovery of bad loans? RBI Act [B] Banking Regulation Act [C] Income-tax Act [D] SARFAESI Act 10. Which of the following organizations/agencies works solely to monitor and arrange flow of agriculture credit in India? NABARD [C] RBI [B] SIDBI [D] SEBI 12. As we all know, Government of India pays special emphasis on the management of fiscal deficit. What is fiscal deficit? The gap between projected or estimated GDP and actual GDP [B] The gap between the total number and value of currency notes issued by RBI up till now over the number and value of those which are in actual circulation [C] The gap between the actual borrowings of the Government of India and the expected expenditure for which provision is made in the budget [D] Excess of Government s disbursement comprising current and capital expenditures over its current receipts (tax/ non-tax receipts) 11. Non-performing assets are cause for serious concern for banks. Why are these loans known as nonperforming? Recovery of bank s funds is difficult [B] Interest on these accounts is not charged [C] Banks have to make provision for these loans in their Balance Sheet [D] All of the above 13. Goods and Services Tax (GST) would replaced which of the following taxes levied at present? Income tax [B] Corporate tax [C] Capital gains tax [D] Value Added Tax (VAT)

4 0615PIIFM/ What is the name given to the online payment services that all Internet banking customers can use? E-pay [B] E-commerce [C] ECS [D] All of the above 15. The rate of interest payable on a bank deposit is determined by Indian Banks Association [B] the bank concerned [C] RBI [D] Finance Ministry 16. KYC means Know Your Customer very well [B] Know Your Client very well [C] Kind to Your Customer [D] Know Your Prospective Customer very well 17. is simply the use of electronic means to transfer funds directly from one account to another, rather than by cheque or cash. 18. ATM stands for Automatic Teller Machine [B] Automated Transfer Machine [C] Automated Teller Machine [D] Asynchronous Teller Machine 19. The other name of UID project is Aadhaar [B] Pehchaan [C] Parichay [D] Swadhar 20. What does NREGS stand for? National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme [B] National Regional Employment Generation Scheme [C] National Rural Employment Generation Scheme [D] National Regional Employee Generation Scheme 21. Which of the following programs aims at the promotion of savings among rural women? Mu-Banking Rashtriya Mahila Kosh [B] T-Banking [C] E-Banking [D] D-Banking [B] Mahila Samriddhi Yojna [C] Indira Mahila Yojna [D] Jawahar Rozgar Yojna

5 22. The Mid-Day Meal Scheme was launched by the 26. Co-operative Banks in India are registered under 0615PIIFM/5 5 [ P.T.O. Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare [B] Union Ministry of Rural Development [C] Union Ministry of Human Resource Development [D] Union Ministry of Labour and Employment 23. What does M stand for in M-Banking? Money [B] Mobile [C] Multinational [D] Mutual Fund 24. The Banking Ombudsman Scheme is introduced under Section 35A of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 by RBI with effect from 1985 Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934 [B] Banking Regulations Act, 1949 [C] Companies Act, 1956 [D] Banking Laws (Co-operative Societies) Act, Fixed deposits and recurring deposits are repayable after an agreed period [B] repayable on demand [C] not repayable [D] repayable after death of depositors [B] 1990 [C] 1995 [D] Which of the following is known as plastic money? 25. Which of the following is known as banker s bank? SBI [B] NABARD [C] RBI [D] SEBI Bearer cheques [B] Credit cards [C] Demand drafts [D] Gift cheques

6 0615PIIFM/ Among the following who are eligible to benefit from the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act? Adult members of only the scheduled caste and scheduled tribe holders [B] Adults of below poverty line household [C] Adult members of household of all backward communities [D] Adult members of any rural household 31. Total Assets Total Liabilities =? Owner s equity [B] Expenses [C] Retained earnings [D] Net profit 32. Mode is middle most value [B] least frequent value [C] most frequent value 30. Which of the following is one of the major activities of the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD)? On-site inspection of Co-operative Banks and Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) [B] Helping Government of India in preparing Union Budget and presenting it in Cabinet meeting [C] Acting as custodian of the foreign exchange reserves of the country [D] Deciding rate of interest on Savings Bank Accounts in public sector banks 33. Stock turnover ratio is a liquidity ratio [B] profitability ratio [C] solvency ratio [D] current ratio 34. If 35 is the upper limit of the classinterval of class-size 10, then the lower limit of the class-interval is 20 [B] 25 [C] 30

7 0615PIIFM/5 7 [ P.T.O. 35. Liquidity ratios are expressed in pure ratio form [B] percentage [C] rate or time 36. Financially, shareholders are rewarded by interest [B] profits [C] dividends 37. NABARD was set up under The Indian Companies Act, 1956 [B] The Banking Regulation Act, 1949 [C] The Act of Parliament [D] The Reserve Bank of India Act, If a company issues bonus shares, then the debt-equity ratio will remain unaffected [B] be affected [C] improve 39. If a company s share price falls, then its P/E ratio and dividend yield are P/E ratio : decrease; Dividend yield : no effect [B] P/E ratio : increase; Dividend yield : increase [C] P/E ratio : decrease; Dividend yield : decrease [D] P/E ratio : decrease; Dividend yield : increase 40. Which of the following is not a measure of central tendency? Mean [B] Median [C] Range [D] Mode 41. In case of open-ended classes, an appropriate measure of dispersion to be used is range [B] quartile deviation [C] mean deviation [D] standard deviation 42. The Chairman of NABARD is appointed by Central Government [B] Reserve Bank of India [C] The President of India [D] State Bank of India

8 0615PIIFM/ The standard deviation of a set of 50 observations is 8. If each observation is multiplied by 2, then the value of SD will be 4 [B] 8 [C] Current ratio is 4 : 1 and net working capital is R 30,000. The amount of current assets is R 10,000 [B] R 40,000 [C] R 24, Which of the following is not an imperfect note? Washed note [B] Bleached note [C] Mutilated note [D] R 6, Which of the following is a relative measure of dispersion? [D] Oiled note Standard deviation 45. The median and mode for the set of numbers 2, 2, 3, 6, 6, 6, 7, 8, 9 are respectively 3, 3 [B] Variance [C] Coefficient of variation [D] All of the above [B] 7, 7 [C] 8, 8 [D] 6, The Governor of RBI is appointed by the 46. Which of the following is not a current asset? State Government Accounts receivable [B] Central Government of India [B] Inventory of finished products [C] Inventory of raw materials [D] Land [C] President of India [D] Finance Minister of India

9 50. Which of the following equations represents the Balance Sheet? 53. The capital gearing ratio is high for a company. It indicates a position of 0615PIIFM/5 9 [ P.T.O. Assets + Liabilities = Shareholders Equity [B] Assets Liabilities = Shareholders Equity [C] Assets = Liabilities Shareholders Equity [D] Assets = Liabilities + Shareholders Equity 51. Operating profit is profit after deducting financial costs [B] profit after deducting taxes [C] profit after deducting normal operating expenses including depreciation [D] divisible profit 52. Which of the following is the test of long-term liquidity of a business? Interest coverage ratio [B] Current ratio [C] Stock turnover ratio [D] Operating ratio low debts [B] high preference capital [C] high equity [D] low debt-equity ratio 54. The rate at which banks park their short-term excess liquidity with RBI is known as reverse repo rate [B] bank rate [C] PLR [D] repo rate 55. Liquid assets include only cash [B] cash and debtors [C] cash and debtors (except bad debts) [D] cash, debtors (except bad debts) and marketable securities 56. The banker-customer relationship in credit card payment is creditor-debtor [B] debtor-creditor [C] agent-principal [D] principal-agent

10 0615PIIFM/ Arithmetic mean of a group of 100 items is 50 and another group of 150 items is 100. What will be the mean of all items? 185 [B] 180 [C] 80 [D] Which of the following rates is not decided by RBI? Bank rate [B] Repo rate [C] Prime lending rate [D] Cash reserve ratio 59. The following figures represent the number of books issued at the counter of a commerce library in 11 different days. The median for the set of numbers is 98 [B] 100 [C] , 180, 98, 75, 270, 20, 102, 100, 94, 75, Earnings are the result of the difference between revenue and assets [B] revenue and expenses [C] revenue and liabilities [D] liabilities and expenses 61. Who has the sole right to issue paper currency in India? The Ministry of Finance [B] Reserve Bank of India [C] The Planning Commission [D] The Finance Commission 62. Which of the following is recommended by RBI as a part of anti-money laundering measures? KYC norms [B] Monetary policy [C] Foreign trade policy 63. Retained earning is synonymous to accumulated Profit & Loss A/c [B] profit for the year [C] general reserve

11 64. Headquarter of Reserve Bank of India is in 68. Which of the following is not a measure of dispersion? 0615PIIFM/5 11 [ P.T.O. New Delhi The range [B] Kolkata [C] Mumbai [D] Chennai [B] The quartiles [C] The standard deviation [D] The variance 65. Reserve Bank of India was set up on the recommendation of the Narasimham Committee [B] Hilton-Young Commission [C] Fazal Ali Commission [D] Mahalanobis Committee 66. When RBI reduces the CRR, it results into decrease in deposit [B] increase in deposit [C] increase in lendable resources [D] decrease in lendable resources 67. RBI provides for meeting day-to-day receipt and expenditure mismatch to both Central and State Governments. 69. A qualitative characteristic like religion, nationality and sex is called variable [B] attributes [C] frequency 70. Which of the following is the rate of interest which a central bank charges on the loans and advances provided to the commercial banks? SLR [B] Bank rate [C] CRR [D] Reserve repo rate 71. The word statistics is derived from treasury bills statistic [B] ways and means advance [C] date and securities [D] All of the above [B] statista [C] status [D] All of the above

12 0615PIIFM/ Given, average mean is 20 and mode is 18. The median is [B] 20 [C] Net worth of a business means equity capital [B] total assets [C] total assets total liabilities 76. Proprietary ratio is calculated by total assets/total outside liabilities [B] total outside liabilities/total tangible assets [C] fixed assets/long-term source of fund [D] proprietors fund/total tangible assets 77. A revenue [D] fixed assets current assets is a decrease in shareholders equity 74. The term current assets does not include debtors [B] bills receivable [C] stock [D] goodwill [B] is a decrease or an increase in shareholders equity [C] has no impact on shareholders equity [D] is an increase in shareholders equity 75. Which of the following assets is most likely to appreciate rather than depreciate? Land [B] Motor vehicles [C] Plant and machinery [D] Fixtures and fittings 78. Current ratio of a concern is 1; its net working capital will be positive [B] negative [C] nil

13 79. Which of the following is not a long-term liability? 83. Bank Overdraft should be classified as 0615PIIFM/5 13 [ P.T.O. Accounts payable (for payables due in more than one year) [B] Bank borrowings reimbursable in more than one year [C] Bank overdrafts [D] Bonds 80. The ideal quick ratio is 2 : 1 [B] 1 : 1 [C] 5 : Which of the following statements is not true? Failure to pay interest is an act of bankruptcy, which gives creditors rights to liquidate the company. [B] Net profit can be substantially higher if debt is used. [C] Net profit is higher if preference shares are used as opposed to bank loans. 82. The mean of the data is 10, 20, 30, 40, [B] 25 [C] 35 [D] 30 Current Assets [B] Current Liability [C] Fixed Assets 84. The interquartile range is the 50th percentile [B] another name for the variance [C] the difference between the largest and smallest values [D] the difference between the third quartile and the first quartile 85. Loans of very small amounts given to low-income group is called microcredit [B] cash credit [C] simple overdraft [D] rural credit 86. The curve drawn by taking upper limits along x-axis and cumulative frequency along y-axis is frequency polygon [B] more than ogive [C] less than ogive

14 87. In which of the following, opening stock is shown? 0615PIIFM/ Service area approach is associated with Profit & Loss A/c industrial finance [B] Balance Sheet [C] Cash-flow statement [D] Owner s equity [B] microfinance [C] rural finance [D] consortium finance 88. The term current assets does not include cash [B] stock-in-hand [C] advance payments [D] furniture 89. The degree of solvency of two firms can be compared by measuring net worth [B] tangible net worth [C] asset coverage ratio [D] solvency ratio 90. Issue of notice of maturity of deposits to depositor is 92. In calculating the Earning Per Share (EPS), the net profit is divided by number of equity shares [B] number of preference shares [C] number of equity shares plus preference shares [D] total liabilities 93. Given that Assets 20,00,000 Tax 25,000 Profit before tax 2,25,000 Net worth 10,00,000 What is the Return on Investment (ROI)? R mandatory 10% [B] obligatory [C] legal [B] 12 5% [C] 20% [D] 25%

15 0615PIIFM/5 15 [ P.T.O. 94. Ayush started business on 1st April, 2015 with a capital of R 25,000 and a loan of R 12,500. Total assets and liabilities at the end of 31st March, 2016 amounted to R 75,000 and R 12,500 respectively. He invested a further capital of R 12,500 during the year and withdrew R 7,500 during the relevant financial year. His closing capital and profit would be respectively R 62,500 and R 32,500 [B] R 50,000 and R 40,000 [C] R 70,000 and R 47,500 [D] R 55,000 and R 42, Priority sector includes small-scale industries [B] agriculture [C] retail business [D] All of the above 96. Which of the following bodies makes major credit policies for the Regional Rural Banks (RRBs)? [B] RBI [C] SBI NABARD [D] World Bank 97. Which legislation authorized RBI to inspect commercial bank? Banking Regulation Act, 1934 [B] Banking Regulation Act, 1949 [C] Banking Regulation Act, 1972 [D] RBI Act, A customer has a right to ask the bank to return him a paid instruments before the expiry of period of such instruments under the provisions of Section 131 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 [B] Section 34 of Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934 [C] Section 45Z of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 [D] All of the above 99. Who decides on the value and volume of bank notes to be printed and on what basis? The Finance Ministry [B] The Planning Commission [C] Reserve Bank of India [D] The Stock Exchange 100. HM of 8, 1, 6 weighted by 3, 2, 5 respectively is 2 32 [B] 5 60 [C] 3 12

16 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK 0615PIIFM/5 16 PP6 360